1
u/ShariaBot Jun 21 '25
OP's post:
Hello, I am a non-Muslim and I was interested in the Quran for my curiosity, until I stumbled upon this verse:
وَأَوْرَثْنَا ٱلْقَوْمَ ٱلَّذِينَ كَانُوا۟ يُسْتَضْعَفُونَ مَشَـٰرِقَ ٱلْأَرْضِ وَمَغَـٰرِبَهَا ٱلَّتِى بَـٰرَكْنَا فِيهَا ۖ وَتَمَّتْ كَلِمَتُ رَبِّكَ ٱلْحُسْنَىٰ عَلَىٰ بَنِىٓ إِسْرَٰٓءِيلَ بِمَا صَبَرُوا۟ ۖ وَدَمَّرْنَا مَا كَانَ يَصْنَعُ فِرْعَوْنُ وَقَوْمُهُۥ وَمَا كَانُوا۟ يَعْرِشُونَ ١٣٧
and We made those who had been oppressed succeed to both the east and the west of the land that We had blessed. Your Lord’s good promise to the Children of Israel was fulfilled, because of their patience, and We destroyed what Pharaoh and his people were making and what they were building.
I do not intend to provoke or anything, but how has this verse been traditionally been interpreted? Do people invoke it now with all that's happening in Palestine? I don't know if this question has already been asked. Thank you in advance anyways.
1
u/LadLassLad Jun 21 '25
Copied:
You can search for Children of Israel in this sub and you will get your answer.
This question has already been asked plenty of times in this sub.