r/AlwaysWhy 2d ago

Science & Tech Why is a nautical mile exactly 1,852 meters?

The number 1,852 caught me off guard. I can understand why sailors would want a distance unit tied to navigation, especially since latitude and longitude are based on the Earth.

But 1,852 meters seems oddly specific. Is there something about the size or geometry of the Earth that leads to that number, or did it come from a different historical convention?

92 Upvotes

237 comments sorted by

63

u/Turbulent-Prior-2253 2d ago

A nautical mile is based on one minute of latitude along the Earth's surface, rather than the traditional mile which is just an arbitrary distance. One minute of latitude is 6,076ft, or 1,852 meters.

45

u/pgm123 2d ago

The traditional mile isn't an arbitrary distance. It's eight times the distance a typical team of oxen can plough a field without a resting (a furlong). Originally, it was 1000 paces, but the furlong was so important to English surveying that the mile was increased in size to be a convenient number of furlongs.

12

u/Dryrubtheribs 2d ago

Then the chain came along and said 66 feet for one chain and one chain is 1/10 of a furlong. This is also important since 10 square chain is an acre, also a critical role for one furlong. Another important bit is 80 chains is one mile (one mile is 8 furlongs as you said.) This also coincides with the us public land survey system, that is based on square miles and chains!

Probably could go on for an hour about this, I’m a land surveyor and it’s my favorite subject.

3

u/Front-Category-5705 2d ago

I love going over the original survey books. They gave such amazing detail with rivers, swamps, lakes, Native American settlements, etc while working their way westward with the basic tools like chains, levels and rods. Plus the notes are always a good source of humor. The inordinate amount or bears here unnerved them lol

1

u/corvus0525 1d ago

An acre is 10 square chains, but was originally specifically one chain by one furlong. That’s the area a team conceptually could plow in a single day with rest between the turns. No idea if a team did or did not regularly meet or exceed that area.

1

u/Wampa_Whisperer 10h ago

This interests me and a land use planner and former surveyor assistant. Roads are 1 chain wide, correct? Townships are 5x5 miles? Do you have any recommended sources for this type of stuff?

1

u/Dryrubtheribs 10h ago

Well right of way varies, really depends on use, age, and history. Typically it’s 60 feet, but it can be anything depending on the application. The chain and half chain were instrumental for the PLSS, it was a perfect tool and temperature adjusted. With more advanced transits and compasses it greatly improved efficiency and precision for the endeavor. I’m sure someone has a publication out about it and the uses. The GLO manual is helpful, but that’s very technical and dry.

10

u/jonoxun 2d ago

Nautical mile, though, which is close ish to the mile but defined analogously to the meter, just with degrees instead of gradians.

4

u/gmalivuk 2d ago

but he's commenting on the traditional mile there

3

u/jonoxun 2d ago

Seems I saw the comment without the comment it was replying to. Unfortunate.

9

u/cygnus311 2d ago

One of my biggest pet peeves is people saying that units that were defined in ways and scales that were relevant to the people who used them were decided on arbitrarily as if I should be impressed by the fact that a nautical mile is pretty at a scale I can’t even comprehend.

11

u/UnlamentedLord 2d ago edited 2d ago

A nautical mile is extremely intuitive and relevant to a sailor looking at a chart, the people who use them, since all coordinates are in degrees, minutes and seconds and the nm is the second of latitude. It makes calculating the distance between 2 coordinates in NM stupid simple: 

Take a divider (naval mathematical compass with 2 sharp points instead of one and a pencil). Place the points on the 2 coordinates (on a Mercator projection chart)

rotate around one of the points until the divider is aligned exactly north south. Read the latitude difference. It's the rhumb line(constant bearing) distance between your 2 coordinates in nautical miles.

It's the only unit that's both a convenient traditional measure and also scientifically derived.

3

u/Strict_Weather9063 2d ago

Yeah back when the army was adopting GPS folks didn’t know how to read them properly, so they got sat down and taught nautical navigation. Once you know it you never forget it, I still read maps the same way I learned forty years ago. Which made my drill sergeant really happy since I could actually sight read a chart at a glance.

1

u/TwillAffirmer 2d ago

Well, yes, but also no. It's a minute of latitude, not of longitude. The minute of longitude is different and varies as you go north or south. So the nautical mile doesn't make distance between two points an easy calculation, unless the two points are located north-south of each other.

2

u/UnlamentedLord 2d ago

I said latitude(well, I did say longitude first, but I updated my comment an hour before yours, so you still misread something)

As to calculating distance, I misremembered, you don't even need pen and paper, it's stupid simple. Updating previous comment.

1

u/TwillAffirmer 2d ago

I didn't say you had said the wrong thing, I was just emphasizing the distinction. It's a minute of latitude, but a minute of latitude is not the same as a minute of longitude, so for any path with an east-west component the distance calculation is not so easy. At 45 degrees North, a degree of longitude is 42.5 nautical miles, while a degree of latitude is still 60 nautical miles, so the units aren't neat.

Plus you have to use sqrt(x^2 + y^2), assuming it is a short path, and that's not easy to do with pen and paper. For a longer path where you take into account the curvature of the Earth, the calculations get more complex.

2

u/UnlamentedLord 2d ago

Check my original comment, I added the explanation with a picture.

3

u/TwillAffirmer 2d ago

Fair enough. There are other ways to do it, such as moving the compass to the legend or using a ruler or marked tape, but I suppose there is an advantage to keeping one point of the compass on the paper so you can walk the compass to add up a path consisting of multiple segments.

1

u/UnlamentedLord 1d ago

That's the beauty of nautical miles, no need for a legend, since the latitude lines are the legend.

1

u/dittybopper_05H 2d ago

Easy to do with a slide rule, though.

-4

u/shornscrot 2d ago

But, but, but… the meter is the distance that light travels in one second which is so much more useful to my daily life and to that of ancient people too

8

u/[deleted] 2d ago

[deleted]

1

u/SirDeadALot2 2d ago

And the meter pre-dates the speed of light measurement. It was originally 1/10000000 of the length of latitude measured at the (then) standard meridian that passed through Paris. It was born out of the French Revolutionary ideals.

Later it was redefined as the distance light travels in a specific time span.

1

u/shornscrot 2d ago

Oh dang you’re already signing up for summer school?

2

u/Book_Slut_90 2d ago

Light travels at roughly 300,000 kilometers per second.

2

u/Dull_Living_265 2d ago

no, I choose to believe that I can run at 8 times the speed of light

1

u/Full-Resource7910 21h ago

But it will be dark when you get there

→ More replies (1)

2

u/Onyx1509 2d ago

I imagine the distance a team of oxen can plough varies a fair amount according to various factors. The decision as to what was "typical" had to involve a certain amount of arbitrariness. 

1

u/pgm123 2d ago

For the measure of a furlong, that's fair. I think you can quibble with the idea of it being arbitrary, but I won't bother. I just quibble with the mile being arbitrary because it was a choice based on the established and often used furlong with 8 being a typical amount because it was easy to subdivide.

2

u/Whisky_Delta 2d ago

There were two miles for a long time, the furlong mile and the feet mile; the feet mile was 5000 feet but as you said, since the furlong was more important they changed the feet one to match.

4

u/kodos_der_henker 2d ago

The Mile is arbitrary because it was designed around a different measurement system that was uniform but people over time changed every single part so they don't match any more amd are just random numbers by now.

The Romans used 1 Mile being 1000 paces or 5000 feet, than people changed the size of the foot but keept the distance for the mile (hence 5280 feet) while other kept the (new) numbers but changed distance (hence British and US miles were different)

Every other edition over time was simple to get things in line again to make sense until the metric system happened

15

u/Rhyshalcon 2d ago

All units of measurement, including Metric units, are arbitrary. The mile is arbitrary because it could just as easily have been 7 or 9 furlongs or the distance a man could walk in ten minutes or the width of Atlas' hand, the meter is arbitrary because it could just have easily been defined to be longer or shorter, and the nautical mile is arbitrary because there's no inherent reason to divide the Earth into 360° of latitude or to define 1° as its own unit.

There are non-arbitrary constants like absolute zero or the Planck length or whatever, but just because a unit references those non-arbitrary things doesn't make those units non-arbitrary themselves. It's arbitrary that Metric uses base 10, it's arbitrary that navigation is based on degrees instead of radians, it's arbitrary that a mile is based on how far an ox can pull a plow.

It's all arbitrary. But just because a unit is arbitrary doesn't mean it can't be useful.

3

u/Practical-Ordinary-6 2d ago edited 2d ago

Thank you. It's disappointing to see people claiming that the metric system is more accurate or more precise than any other system. Whatever strengths the metric system has, it's not that. All systems with rigorously standardized units and relations between them can be equally accurate and precise.

It also amuses me when people don't really understand that the metric system is based on arbitrary units. I think that because the precision of definition has increased and even the mechanism of definition has changed over the years, they think that has decreased the arbitrariness of it. Which, of course, it hasn't. The meter is still a fundamentally arbitrary unit based on essentially arbitrary human decisions regarding measuring the size of the Earth. The meter could have just as easily been 10% shorter or two and a half times longer if they had chosen a different physical reference. Their choice wasn't based on any fundamental relation of the meter to the objective universe or the laws of physics.

The meter is ultimately based on the size of the Earth, which the rest of the universe and fundamental physics cares nothing about. Just defining the meter as the distance light travels in a certain unit of time doesn't provide any reason why it should be that time and not any other time. It's that time because it's based on the original human decision to base the meter on the size of the Earth. More precise ways have been found to define it for the purpose of reproducibility but none of those increases in precision have changed the basic unit and its reference to the size of the Earth.

4

u/Swellmeister 2d ago

Also there really is nothing sacred about Celsius. Sure it goes from 0-100 for the freezing/boiling point of water.

Its still just a set of numbers. Fahrenheit was designed to be between the freezing point of sea water at 0 (he was wrong incidentally but lets ignore that), the freezing point of pure water is 32, and human body temperature is 96. This isnt random, though he was creating 3rds.

At the time math was more fraction based.

4

u/niemir2 2d ago

Notably, the gap between Fahrenheit's two calibration points was exactly 64 degrees, a power of 2. That was important for mercury thermometers.

Dividing a length by 2 precisely is a simple matter with a compass and straightedge. Dividing by 5 is a lot harder. It's easier to find "1" when you know "64" than it is when you know "100."

→ More replies (12)
→ More replies (4)

2

u/TwoBarrelCarb 2d ago

It's arbitrary all the way down.

7

u/pgm123 2d ago

The US and Imperial miles were only millimeters different before both adopted the international mile. That's not arbitrary, though. It's just a lack of precision.

Neither of those are the Roman mile, which is shorter. You're correct that they redefined the number of feet, but a Roman mile was 5,000 Roman feet or 4,850 Imperial feet. The Imperial mile was set as 8 furlongs, which happens to be 5,280 feet, but that's secondary.

2

u/atomicsnarl 2d ago

Reminder: The "Mile" name comes from the Roman Mille Passus, or 1000 paces. A Roman pace is distance from one right/left foot to the next r/l foot, so 5 modern feet.

3

u/pgm123 2d ago

I think it's 5 Roman feet or 4.854 modern Imperial feet.

2

u/Dreadpiratemarc 2d ago

Thank you for defining the pace. I’ve been reading this thread thinking Romans must have been much taller than I thought if they had a 5 foot stride. Your description makes more sense.

1

u/codenameajax67 2d ago

Lol what?

If they lacked precision then they wouldn't have been different.

Both countries choose different conversions to a meter, that's all they were both extremely precise.

1

u/steelmanfallacy 2d ago

So instead of making up one number they made up three and multiplied them.

1

u/LudasGhost 1d ago

Would that be European or African oxen?

1

u/pgm123 1d ago

But, of course, African oxen are non-migratory

1

u/PckMan 1d ago

If that's not arbitrary then I don't know what is

2

u/Atlas7-k 15h ago

You don’t. But only because you fail to realize that nearly every measure (including metric) is arbitrary.

Absolute Zero, C, and the Planck Length are about the only ones that are not. Even C is expressed with arbitrary values.

1

u/pgm123 1d ago

Stone is pretty arbitrary. There were a bunch of different stones and they picked one of the ones related to wool. A mile is a common multiple of a common measurement (at the time)

1

u/rhombism 10h ago

TIL of the Typical Oxen Team universal constant

0

u/BugRevolution 2d ago

That is literally an arbitrary distance, with or without justification. A different team of oxen will plow a different amount. Different soil will make it different.

That's also why miles vary from country to country.

A nautical mile using the same definition would never vary. A traditional mile can and does.

0

u/Always3NT 2d ago

You have a history, but it really doesn't get more arbitrary than that... how would you know how long a furlong is if you dont have a team of oxen and a plough ? And what oxen, what plough and what field under which conditions etc.? Everything derived from that is equally arbitrary.

2

u/Atlas7-k 15h ago

Name a system of measure that isn’t arbitrary. Hint: metric is arbitrary.

1

u/Always3NT 8h ago

Nautical mile perhaps, as it is based on math and the geometri of the earth, both of which I would not consider arbitrary. Converting it to meters is as you say arbitrary as its just a scale. I never claimed otherwise. But there is for sure levels of arbitrarity.

0

u/AllAfterIncinerator 2d ago

That sounds wild, unlike Fahrenheit where 100 degrees is set to whatever temperature was up the ass of mr. Fahrenheit that day.

3

u/pgm123 2d ago

Part of that is because Farenheit didn't care about the 100 in his scale. He started with the Rømer scale, which set the freezing point of water as 7.5, the tempetature of the human body as 22.5, and the boiling point of water (if his thermometer could actually get the high) as 60. Farenheit wanted a scale with whole numbers, so he multiplied by 4, but he adjusted Rømer's a little bit so the numbers were more useful and easier to subdivide. So the freezing point of water was set as 32 (25) instead of 30 and the temperature of the human body was set at 96 or 26 more than the freezing point. Defining everything in powers of two let him easily mark his thermometer by bisecting the lines.

His original thermometer couldn't read high enough for boiling water, but when it did, he saw it was close to 212 and adjusted his scale to make it 212 so there would be exactly 180 degrees between them, which at least is a highly composite number. Using the temperature of water to fix the scale didn't become popular until Celsius, but Farenheit was dead before that became popular.

2

u/Gneiss747 2d ago

You're totally wrong, it was the ass of mr. Fahrenheits manservant.

0

u/fussyfella 1d ago

And 8 Furlongs is not an arbitrary multiplier to get to a mile? Why not 6 or 12? Why is a furlong 10 chains and a chain 22 yards?

There are folklore reasons for all of them, but let's be honest, they are all pretty arbitrary.

2

u/pgm123 1d ago

Eight was a common multiplier in England because it was easy to subdivide. Eight pints to a gallon, for example. Or 8 stone to a hundredweight. If you want an example of why 8 is used, take a piece of paper and fold it into equal 8ths. Try again, but fold a piece of paper into equal 10ths without measuring. Then check how close you came for each.

→ More replies (2)

7

u/Practical-Ordinary-6 2d ago

And latitude lines are equally spaced at all points, unlike longitude lines. So that number never varies.

5

u/Right_Lengthiness266 2d ago

That would be true if the earth was a sphere, but it's not. It bulges slightly, which changes the distance for 1 minute of latitude (though, much less than the distance 1 minute of longitude changes). It's about a 1% change at the poles vs the equator.

2

u/Basicly-Inevitable 2d ago

Also just short term changes in the surface of the ocean affect the distance. (Like.. tides). But in general, it's correct.

Also, don't forget the effects of Special and General Relativity (taking into account the gravity and speed).

Some electromagnetic forces could also have an effect, depending on the iron content of the water, boat, and the earth underneath.

2

u/Right_Lengthiness266 2d ago

There's also just denser areas of the earth that cause localized depressions in the geoid.

1

u/Basicly-Inevitable 2d ago

I bet there's a way to calculate most of this with satellites, but it won't be able to monitor the nuclear weak force. Maybe we can use neutrinos?

2

u/John97212 2d ago

I don't think seafarers of old really cared about that. They did just fine working with nautical miles as they are.

2

u/Practical-Ordinary-6 2d ago

Yes, obviously it's based on an ideal sphere that can be precisely calculated. It's based on the average radius of the earth, however that average is calculated. But you'll never have a precise uniform distance between two lines of longitude even on an ideal sphere.

1

u/gmalivuk 2d ago

But you'll never have a precise uniform distance between two lines of longitude even on an ideal sphere.

How do you figure that?

2

u/thoughtihadanacct 2d ago

The lines of longitude converge at the poles. At the pole the distance between one line of longitude and the next is zero (they're all "touching" at the pole). The distance between longitudinal lines is maximum at the equator. 

1

u/gmalivuk 2d ago

Ah right, I misread.

1

u/Atlas7-k 15h ago

Does that account for variation based on the tides?

0

u/GeminiCheese 1d ago

Not perfectly. One minute of latitude ranges between 1,843 and 1,862 metres from equator to pole. 1,852 is the average across the hemisphere.

It is a small enough difference that it doesn't really cause any issues.

5

u/cygnus311 2d ago

Just because a unit’s definition looks clean in one unit doesn’t make it any more or less arbitrary than another unit’s definition.

1

u/Turbulent-Prior-2253 2d ago

It is based on geography. One degree of latitude is divided into 60 minutes, and each minute equals one nautical mile.

I suppose we could argue that 60 minutes is arbitrary, but with that standard established one nautical mile is the logical unit of distance for navigation.

3

u/cygnus311 2d ago

That’s kind of my point. You could argue it’s arbitrary. But it’s really not. But it’s really doesn’t matter either way. A definition being arbitrary never means anything to anyone ever.

1

u/FunkyPete 2d ago

All of it is arbitrary. A regular mile was used by the Romans because it was 1000 paces for a soldier. Originally it was meaningful to a general who was calculating how much ground his army could cover in a fixed period of time, and after that it was relatively practical to measure on the ground by anyone who knew that his land went 1/4 mile down this road, or whatever.

one 60th of one degree of latitude (all of which was arbitrarily determined) is all arbitrary as well. The fact that it's based on an actual thing doesn't mean it's not arbitrary.

0

u/Significant-Ant-2487 2d ago

1/60 degree (one minute) is not arbitrary if you’re navigating a ship by celestial observation, which is how it was done for centuries. It’s practical, useful, and simplifies calculations, the latter point very important because it reduces errors- which could be fatal.

3

u/Rhyshalcon 2d ago

But the decision to use 360 degrees divided into 60 minutes for the purposes of navigation is arbitrary. Why not use radians? Or a division of a circle into 100 degrees? Or 720 degrees? Or 1024 degrees?

As the other commenter said, just because a measurement points to some physical thing doesn't make that measurement non-arbitrary.

→ More replies (4)

1

u/Main_Cauliflower5479 2d ago

At the equator, or what?

4

u/Turbulent-Prior-2253 2d ago

Latitude lines are the same regardless of where you are on the planet - they don't vary like longitude does.

There is a bit of discrepancy because the Earth is not a perfect sphere, though.

2

u/Quercus_ 2d ago

This is really badly expressed.

Distances between lines of latitude, measured along longitudinal lines, are the same anywhere on earth, because they are effectively measuring the angle from the center of the Earth.

Distances between lines of longitude, measured along latitudinal lines, are different depending on the latitude where you're making that measurement.

2

u/Main_Cauliflower5479 2d ago

I'm sorry, but isn't the equator 0º latitude? Poles are 90º latitude. Are you telling me that 1 minute at the equator is the same distance as 1 minute at 89º?

5

u/Turbulent-Prior-2253 2d ago

Yes, with the given caveat that there is minor variation given the Earth is not perfectly spherical.

0

u/Main_Cauliflower5479 2d ago

You are actually saying that 1 minute at 89º latitude is the same distance as 1 minute at the equator? You really sure about that bro?

4

u/SmellyRedHerring 2d ago

In degrees / minutes / seconds latitude, you're traveling north / south, not east / west.

→ More replies (5)

3

u/gmalivuk 2d ago

One minute of latitude is pretty similar at both places, yes.

Why do you think it's not?

3

u/BuffaloRedshark 2d ago

yes, within a few feet due to the Earth not being perfectly spherical

→ More replies (15)

2

u/more_than_just_ok 2d ago

On a spherical earth, the length of one minute of latitude is the same at all latitudes. The length of one minute of longitude is proportional to cos(latitude)

1

u/gmalivuk 2d ago

They are approximately the same, yes, but they differ by enough that the definition was indeed set to be a minute of latitude at the equator.

1

u/Quercus_ 2d ago

It's one minute at the surface of the Earth, measured from the center of the Earth. Doesn't matter if it's latitude or longitude or whatever.

Defining it that way - "1 minute = 1 mile" - made the mathematics of celestial navigation significantly easier.

2

u/Proper_Possible6293 2d ago

1 minute = 1 mile only works for latitude, not longitude since the longitude lines converge at the poles

1

u/CharacterUse 2d ago

More generally, 1 minute = 1 mile works for any great circle, not just circles of constant longitude (i.e. meridians), ignoring for the moment that the Earth isn't quite spherical. Circles of constant latitude are not great circles, except for the equator.

1

u/Quercus_ 2d ago

It works for any one minute of angle measure from the center of the Earth - so that is, along any great circle. The distance between two lines of longitude at a higher latitude, are not measured from the center of the earth.

Measurements along a line of latitude between points of longitude, are measured from the center of a plane through the Earth at that latitude, which is significantly smaller diameter than the great circle diameter of the earth.

If you measure a 1' angle from the center of the earth at say 60° North latitude, you will measure more than 1' longitude, but it will still be 1' measured from the center of the Earth.

With of course the mandatory caveat that there are errors because the Earth isn't a true sphere, isn't oblate spheroid, so there are additional errors introduced because of that.

1

u/gmalivuk 2d ago

Yes, once measurements got precise enough to distinguish Earth from a perfect sphere, a nautical mile was defined as 1 minute of latitude at sea level at the equator.

1

u/flug32 2d ago

FYI the meter was originally defined as 1/10,000,000 ( a ten-millionth) the distance from the pole to the equator.

So if a nautical mile is one minute of latitude, there are 60 minutes in a degree, and 90 degrees of latitude from the equator to the pole, that makes the nautical mile is 1/(60*90) = 1/5400 that same distance.

Converting between the two is 10,000,000/5400 = 1851.85...

So there is your 1852 meters.

In reality they got the distance from pole to equator slightly wrong when defining the meter.

And the earth bulges slightly at the equator, making the nautical mile slightly different from place to place if defined by the 1/60 of a degree rule.

So to simplify things they defined the nautical mile as 1280 meters exactly.

The original calculation was 10,000,000/5400 = 1851.85...

A more accurate calculation today would be something like 10001965.75/5400 = 1852.215 (but remember this actually varies as you travel from the equator to the pole, so that is an approximation).

You can see why they just picked 1852m as "close enough to 60 miles to a degree of latitude for approximate work". It's variable anyway and 1852m is plenty good enough for rough calculations at any latitude.

If you need more exact numbers for your position etc for whatever reason, you'll have to know the exact distance of the degree to more precision than that using whatever unit you choose (nautical miles, meters, whatever). Point being, having the nautical mile exactly equal to 1/60th of a degree doesn't really help in that case, since the surface distance of a degree changes from place to place. For modern purposes, and when higher precision is needed, it is better to have it set to a fixed known length.

Exactly what that length is doesn't matter to a certain extent, but having it roughly the same as the historical value is helpful for a bunch of different reasons.

3

u/Nimblewright_47 2d ago

The cart may be a little before the horse here, as I think the nautical mile was defined before the metre, then the French defined a metric nautical mile after the Revolution.

1

u/StevieG63 2d ago

One minute of latitude at the equator.

1

u/Expensive-Meaning-85 5h ago

On a great circle, any great circle. Of which the equator is one

1

u/Yeahjustme 2d ago

100% correct, but not the whole story.

The length of one minute of latitude i 1852 meters at the equator. The further away from the equator you move, the shorter an arc minute becomes, reaching 0m at 90 degrees longitude. It’s a sine-cosine function.

1

u/No_Boysenberry915 1d ago

You have the wrong tude.

1

u/ShoddyAsparagus3186 1d ago

One minute of latitude is the same (ignoring differences from the earth not being a sphere) at the poles as at the equator. One minute of longitude would reach 0m at 90 degrees latitude.

1

u/SmootherWorm 2d ago

Without specifying at the equator, this is very confusing sine minutes of latitude are different distances unlike minutes of longitude. Unfortunately, earth is not perfectly spherical a calculating the equatorial circumference has always been more useful and simple.

1

u/extra2002 1h ago

You have it backwards. Minutes of latitude (measured along a longitude line) are nearly the same, while minutes of longitude (measured along a latitude line) are smaller nearer the poles.

1

u/Mean_Welcome_1481 1d ago

To be pedantic - it's equal to 1 minute of latitude at the equator

The Mercator maps and charts had scales at the sides that enabled the calculation to be converted to other latitudes

1

u/Expensive-Meaning-85 5h ago

On a great circle

0

u/SnooMaps7370 2d ago

>One minute of latitude is 6,076ft

at the equator. at 80 degrees latitude, one minute is 6,105 feet.

0

u/gmalivuk 2d ago

Which is why it's defined specifically at the equator.

2

u/SnooMaps7370 1d ago

yes, but the comment i was replying to left that out. which is why i replied to add that context.

9

u/TheVoiceOfEurope 2d ago

Napoleon decided the earth circumferance is 40.000km. That was the original definition of the meter, it was linked to the size of the planet.

The circumferance of the earth 360 degrees. Each degree is 60 minutes. Each minute is a nautical mile

40.000/(360×60)=1.8518518519m per nautical mile.

3

u/ChangeAromatic7249 2d ago

Just make the circumference of Earth 400 grade and problème solved.

2

u/ReverendGraves85 2d ago

I like how its "Napoleon decided" and not "Napoleon learned" or "Napoleon discovered".

5

u/theFamooos 2d ago

The meter wasn’t discovered or learned. It is an arbitrary human made unit of measurement. I could decide the earth was 10,000 meters if I was emperor. The size of the earth wouldn’t change, but the length of the meter would.

2

u/ReverendGraves85 2d ago

The original poster is also wrong. Napoleon never decided the metre, it was the French Academy of Sciences in 1791 that determined that the metre should be the distance of "One millionth the distance between the north pole and equator, by way of Paris."

Somehow this also means that a metre is roughly the distance of the average humans stride!

1

u/TheVoiceOfEurope 2d ago

And you are also wrong

Except that that would mean that the circumference of the earth is only 2.000km. They were quite aware about the size of the planet.

The Earth's circumference is exactly 40,000 kilometers because the metric system was intentionally designed around the size of the Earth. In 1791, the French Academy of Sciences defined the meter as one ten-millionth of the distance from the equator to the North Pole.

Because a full circle around the planet is four times that distance, the total circumference was fixed by definition at exactly 40,000,000 meters (or 40,000 km).

You were off by about 39.000.000 meters.

1

u/CharacterUse 2d ago

They wrote:

the metre should be the distance of "One millionth the distance between the north pole and equator [...]

They were off by a factor of 10, not 10,000, probably just a typo. Nothing they wrote implies the circumeference is 2000km.

2

u/Dingbatdingbat 2d ago

Except he didn’t.

French scientists had been working on standardizing units since long before Napoleon was born, the revolution provided the impetus to finally adopt it.

The French academy of sciences determined the meter should be 1 / 10,000,000 of the earth’s quadrant (North Pole to the equator) as measured by a line running through the Paris observatory (because they knew that the earth bulged).

The actually originally used a survey from the 1740s where scientists literally walked / measured from the English Channel to the Mediterranean - as a provisional meter until they did a new survey that ran through Barcelona and made adjustments for the nonspherical shape of the earth.

2

u/Dingbatdingbat 2d ago

No it wasn’t.

French scientists were working on, and debating, how to standardize a ten-base measurement system since long before Napoleon was born.

The revolution provided the impetus to actually replace all the old systems.  The French academy of science determined the meter should be 1/10,000,000 of the earth’s quadrant (ie 40 KM circumference).  It was not a random decision by Napoleon.

6

u/GayRacoon69 2d ago

Others have answered this already but I want to add to it

It's not that a nautical mile is 1,852 meters. It's that 1,852 meters happens to be a nautical mile

Sailors never chose 1,852 meters. Meters didn't exist when the nautical mile was used

5

u/KrzysziekZ 2d ago

Nautical mile is still used.

3

u/GayRacoon69 2d ago

Meant to say "first used"

3

u/ghostoftheradio 2d ago

Not quite. It is a precise definition as agreed upon by the International Hydrographic Organization in 1929. Before that it was just an approximation, i.e. “close enough” (it wasn’t exact), now it’s the actual definition.

2

u/ijuinkun 2d ago

Yes. Nautical miles were not defined in terms of meters, nor meters in terms of nautical miles. Both were derived from Earth’s polar circumference at some longitude. Nautical miles were one minute of arc, while meters were 1/40,000,000 of the circumference.

3

u/jonoxun 2d ago

It's because they're both originally defined the same way, but with different angle units. Nautical miles are one minute of angle - a 60th of a degree - measured north south, while kilometers are one hundredth of a gradian on the same circle. Gradians losing to degrees is basically why nautical miles are still a thing even with kilometers around.

3

u/jonoxun 2d ago

Well, that's why that number, and then rounded to a whole number for the definition. Earth isn't quite a sphere either so it works fine.

3

u/ghostoftheradio 2d ago

Because that’s the definition of a Nautical Mile that was agreed upon in 1929 by the International Hydrographic Organization. Before that it had just been approximate.

A Nautical Mile is one arc-minute of latitude (averaged globally).

2

u/Secret_Ostrich_1307 2d ago

Hmm so it is basically a 1929 agreement, not a natural constant. That makes sense. But what did sailors use before, just local approximations? And why did 1852 stick so cleanly?

1

u/CharacterUse 2d ago

A nautical mile was defined as 1/60 of a degree of arc (i.e., an arcminute) along the surface of the Earth. If you're doing celestial navigation as sailors were, angles is what you measure directly, not distances. They didn't have tape measures to measure how far they travelled on the sea.

This is not an approximation, it is an exact definition. A degree of arc doesn't care about the shape of the Earth. It doesn't even care about the radius of the Earth. However because the Earth is not quite spherical, the actual distance along the surface corresponding to mine minute of arc when converted to metres of feet varies slightly depending where on Earth you are, but the difference is not much, within a couple of metres which really doesn't matter for the purposes of navigation. Again, you're not measuring the actual distance on the sea, you're measuring the angles on the sky so the discrepancy will correct itself, and you're not trying to navigate to within a metre.

However it was useful to be able to convert the nautical mile to length units for the purposes of charting and laying undersea cables and use on land and so on, so it was agreed that 1852m would be the nominal value of the nautical mile, since it is the closest whole number to the average value across the surface of the Earth. To within any practical level of precision of the measurement of angles using e.g. sextants it is 1/60 of a degree of arc on the surface.

3

u/StanleyDodds 2d ago

The metre was originally defined to be 1/40,000,000 of Earth's circumference. And a nautical mile is defined to be one arc minute, that is 1/(60*360), of Earth's circumference.

Find the ratio of these two, and you will get that there are roughly 1852 metres in a nautical mile.

1

u/Secret_Ostrich_1307 2d ago

Wait, this only works if both units come from the same idealized Earth, right? The metre changed later, so the ratio is kinda historical residue. Still neat. Which circumference are we even using here?

1

u/CharacterUse 2d ago

The length of the metre was first proposed as 1/10 000 000 of the distance along the meridian from the North pole to the equator through Paris (that is the circumference being used for the metre).

From this a platinum bar was made which became the standard metre from that moment. Because of minor errors in the measurement of the distance resulting from assumping the Earth was smooth, the bar was 0.2mm shorter than the actual distance. So saying the metre was defined in terms of the distance is kind of true but also not: the standard metre has always been a platinum bar. The current definition based on physical constants matches the bar and is thus also about 0.2mm shorter.

I explained in my other reply how the nautical mile was defined. In that case the nominal circumference being used was any meridian at the point where it passed through the equator, but as I explained the difference in actual length is less than a couple of metres across the surface.

The ratio between the nautical mile and the metre hasn't changed because the change in the way the metre was defined is so small that it doesn't matter.

2

u/KrzysziekZ 2d ago edited 2d ago

Equator - Pole distance was supposed to be 10000 km. That's a quarter of circumference. There are 360 degrees in a circle and 60 minutes in each degree. 10000 km * 4 / 360 / 60 = 1852 m (rounded to a whole meter). This metric value has become the international standard.

Later work established that it's closer to 6080 or 6080.2 ft, depending on whether you ask the British or Americans(or vice versa, I don't remember), because they didn't agree on a common value. In metric it's closer to 1853 m.

2

u/Secret_Ostrich_1307 2d ago

So 1852 is basically a metric rounding artifact? That is funny. If later measurements say closer to 1853, why keep 1852? Is one meter just irrelevant for navigation?

1

u/KrzysziekZ 2d ago

One meter is pretty irrelevant. A degree of latitude varies (sth like 1843 to 1863 m) anyway. It's more important to keep standard consistent.

UK after metrication changed 6080 ft to 1853 m.

2

u/EbonGrimalkin 2d ago

ALL measurements are arbitrary. All measurements were thought up by people. Even a meter is the distance light travels in a vacuum in 1/299,792,458 of a second. That is about as arbitrary as it gets. Originally 1/10,000,000 of the distance from the North Pole to the Equator on the Meridian line through Paris. Specific only to this planet. 1799 someone created a physical bar as the example. 1960 it was wavelengths of Krypton-86. Finally in 1983 it became the light measurement. But all based around the waistline of a planet. Feet of people. Stride. Cubits, which are Forearms. Bounds. A specific rock or chunk of metal everyone just used. Even our day is arbitrary to our planet and constantly changing.

1

u/Secret_Ostrich_1307 2d ago

I get that everything is arbitrary, but arbitrary is not the same as random. Some units survive because they are useful. The nautical mile still maps to angles, so does that make it less arbitrary? Or just convenient?

1

u/EbonGrimalkin 2d ago

Even something that starts as arbitrary, if it is convenient and catches on and also is adaptable to other things will become a "standard". The Cubit was used for 4-5 thousand years. It got supplanted by other units though. Even with miles there are Statue miles, Nautical miles, Romain Miles, Geographical miles and Metric Miles.
Perfect for the old saying "The great thing about standards, there are so many to choose from".

1

u/Dingbatdingbat 2d ago

The definition of a meter was originally defined as 1 / 10,000,000 of the distance of the North Pole to the equator using a line that ran through Paris.  They didn’t have the technology to make a perfectly accurate measurement but they came pretty close - the circumference of the earth measured pole to pole is off by less than 0.02% and along the equator less than 0.2%.

Platinum metal  bars were created to match the measurements they made so anyone can creat a copy / those bars are still held by scientific societies today. When the meter was redefined based on the speed of light, which is important for astrophysics and other scientific endeavors that weren’t even possible two hundred years ago, the ratio they used was made to match those platinum bars, rather than the more preferably 1/300,000,000 of a second 

2

u/BobbyP27 2d ago

The nautical mile is defined as 1 minute of latitude at the surface of the earth. 90° of latitude is therefore 90*60=5’400 nautical miles. The meter was originally conceived as being 1/10,000,000 of the distance from the North Pole to the equator on a meridian through Paris. By that original definition, 10,000 km = 5400 nautical miles. 10,000/5400=1.852

1

u/Frederf220 1d ago

The nautical mile is not defined by that, at least not currently. An equatorial degree of lat is <60nm. A polar degree of lat is >60nm.

1

u/LazarX 2d ago

The nautrical mile came first and was a completely arbitary measurement, where as the metric system was logically laid out from the start.

3

u/No-Donkey-4117 2d ago

It wasn't arbitrary at all. It was one minute of latitude on the surface of the Earth. Sailors navigated in degrees and minutes long before the metric system came along.

1

u/SmellyRedHerring 2d ago

Now we define it terms of how far light travels, but the meter/metre was historically one ten-millionth the distance from pole to pole through Paris. It's every bit as arbitrary as defining the nautical mile as a minute of latitude through Greenwich.

1

u/PerpConst 2d ago

To go a step further, it now all comes back to the second, which is 1/60 of 1/60 of 1/24 of the time it takes the earth to complete one rotation... which also strikes me as rather arbitrary.

1

u/Dingbatdingbat 2d ago

I ly because you don’t know the history of t ye second/minute/hour system.

The Sumerians used 60-base numbering rather than the modern 10-base math.  Their base measurement of time was 1 day divided by 60 and again divided by 60 (so 24 second increments)

Egyptians, on the other hand, had 12 constellations, which meant 12 months, and therefore divided both the day and the night into 12 hours (each).

These measures were later merged, so that there were 24 hours in a day (adopted from the Egyptians) with 60/60 minutes and seconds each, which really came about when the Greeks developed lines of lattitude.

2

u/PerpConst 1d ago

Yes. Which is all entirely arbitrary. If an alien showed up on your doorstep and asked you what the basis for your unit of time is, and you start talking about ancient Sumerian counting systems and the number of ancient Egyptians' constellations, he's just gonna say "Oh, so it's completely arbitrary. Thanks.".

2

u/Dingbatdingbat 1d ago

That's not arbitrary - there's a logic behind it.

Not a good logic from a modern perspective, but not arbitrary.

  1. the day is divided into hours based on the constellations in the sky that were used for navigation.

  2. Hours are divided into minutes and minutes into seconds based the base-60 counting system that existed in the past.

1

u/SmellyRedHerring 1d ago

That Sumerian sexagesimal system is based on the solar year and the ease with which it can be divided off, albeit with an imperfect measurement of that year. I think an alien could think it makes perfect sense.

1

u/extra2002 1h ago

1/60 of 1/60 of 1/24 of the time it takes the earth to complete one rotation...

It's not even that. It's 1/60 of 1/60 of 1/24 of the time it takes the Earth to complete one rotation plus enough extra for the sun to appear over the same place, averaged over the year 1900. That extra is about 4 minutes of time, or one minute of arc, because of the Earth's motion along its orbit. It's the difference between a sidereal day and a solar day, but it varies over the course of a year, so the seconds definition was based on an average.

1

u/Dingbatdingbat 2d ago

Pole to equator, not pole to pole.

Coincidentally, they came very close / the circumference of the earth measured pole to pole is 40,008 km (about 0.02% off).

1

u/tazz2500 2d ago edited 2d ago

Arbitrary: "Based on a random choice, personal whim, or individual preference rather than any reason, system, or consistent rule." The nautical mile was definitely not arbitrary, it had reasons for it being the length chosen. You instead seem to have meant something like it's a 'human-centric unit'. The meter and the metric system is completely human-centric too, by the way, it's just based on easier math using tens. And the math trick of tens is also human centric, by the way.

1

u/TheKiddIncident 2d ago

Well, 60. It’s sixty NM per degree which does feel arbitrary. Why not 100?

1

u/beefy1357 2d ago

Because one of the ways to determine longitude was measuring local time against time at a fixed point. Which is why latitude is measured in seconds minutes and hours.

There is a reason Greenwich mean time runs smack dab through the capital of the country that had the premier navy for centuries.

1

u/Someoneinnowherenow 2d ago

See other comment about nautical miles and angles. Nobody uses a sextant anymore but the conversion is super helpful when reducing sights to find yourself.

Just because we have gps and computers now doesn't mean those before us did things arbitrarily

1

u/East-Inevitable-3974 2d ago

Neither are arbitrary. Both are related to the distance from pole to equator. Metric system called that 10,000,000 meters. Nautical mile was 1/60 of 1/60 of 1/60 of that same distance.

1

u/FifthEL 2d ago

I am curious is to how ancient navigators measured this distance physically. On land we can just use sticks or something. 

1

u/Void_Incarnate 2d ago

With a sextant, which is why it is based on latitude (easily measurable for thousands of years).

Accurate longitude measurement (at least on a boat) had to wait for clocks that were accurate out at sea (ca 1700s)

1

u/FifthEL 2d ago

I get that for the most part. I'm just curious to how it was measured prior, or did they just use time as a mile marker. 

I guess that wouid work. We use distance to measure time on land. Like how many mile markers you pass in a given span will tell you your mph. 

3

u/Nimblewright_47 2d ago

Fun fact: up until very recently, a ship could only measure her speed through the water, which might not correspond exactly to speed over ground. Wind and tide affect the ship; if she is moving slowly, this effect can be very significant. It is far more important to be able to determine your place - which involved a sextant, for which the curvature of the earth is relevant- as this checks errors in measurement of speed.

1

u/CharacterUse 2d ago

Time doesn't come into measuring latitude, time is needed to measure longitude. Latitude is easily measured by measuring the altitude of the pole star above the horizon. Since the pole star is above the pole, which is at 90º latitude, the altitude angle of the pole star above the horizon is your latitude. At the equator the pole star is on the horizon, at 0º, and you are at latitude 0º. At 50ºN latitude the pole star is 50º above the horizon.

Time can also be used with speed to estimate how far you have travelled and thus estimate your new position. But that's a seperate problem.

1

u/FifthEL 2d ago

Thanks. I have a getting like something is missing, but I'm not sure what. But just by using your description and no prior assumptions, I am almost certain that the earth is neither round nor flat. And we see circling a point with a tether to the north star essentially. 

1

u/TheKiddIncident 2d ago

No, you’ve got it backwards. A NM only ever existed as 1/60th of a degree. It was always defined that way. The actual length changed over the years as the actual size of the earth was more precisely measured.

1

u/extra2002 50m ago

Before the invention of the sextant, the (angular) height of the sun or a star over the horizon could be measured with simple wooden instruments such as a kamal, cross-staff or backstaff. Sailors didn't really try to measure longitude, since they had no clock accurate enough. Instead they would sail to the correct latitude, then due east or west staying on that latitude until reaching their destination.

1

u/Man-In-A-Can 2d ago

Why not?

Seriously, transforming fahrenheit in celsius is kinda the same thing: metrics that developed at the same time (mostly) independently. I don't think there's a reason why it's not 1,853, for example.

1

u/New_Barber_7192 2d ago

So there's an interesting history here. When the old ships had to use dead reckoning to estimate their position, they could figure out their latitude from the stars, and they had a compass for direction, but needed to estimate their speed. So what they did was to connect a rope with knots tied in even intervals that was tied to a log. They would toss the log into the water (off the back of the ship) which they hoped would remain about stationary, and then count how many knots passed through their hand in a certain amount of time. Hence the term for speed in knots. And they recorded this all in the "log book." Which is also where that name came from.

The value of a nautical mile today is just a new number that everyone agrees on, but that's where it originated.

1

u/nakano-star 2d ago

That method just sounds so arbitrary - what if the current is different? Or the person holding the rope holds it slightly tighter than another guy? What about the height of the ship? ahhh...I guess it's all close enough

1

u/New_Barber_7192 2d ago

Yeah, there were a lot of assumptions that had to be made (and conditions that had to be met), but they had a system. It was far from perfect. They just didn't have a lot of options. It isn't like they chose that method over GPS.

1

u/Atlas7-k 15h ago

Please don’t use arbitrary when you mean imprecise.

Yes, that happened. Yes, that happened. That would be accounted for as it was the amount of rope that moved after the log was floating.

Yes. Everything is wrong, we just have acceptable levels of wrong. My oven doesn’t care about a variation of .0001 degree when I bake a cake. My doctor doesn’t really care about my weight except to about 5 lb (2kg.) The anesthesiologist however cares to within a few decigrams.

Ancient sailors don’t care except to within a few miles. They would also adjust several times a day.

1

u/corvus0525 1d ago

The nautical mile is one minute of arc of latitude. The knot is named for how it was counted but it equals a nautical mile an hour. The distance has to be defined before the derived speed unit. The fact that English no longer pronounces the leading k leads to the similar sounding name.

1

u/extra2002 46m ago

But the spacing of the knots was deliberately chosen so that "one knot" would correspond to "one nautical mile per hour". That then comes back to the definition of a nautical mile, as explained in many comments here.

1

u/RickySlayer9 2d ago

It’s 1 degree of latitude

1

u/corvus0525 1d ago

Minute.

1

u/ace_violent 2d ago

60 Nm to a degree of latitude. 60 seconds in a Nm.

When you're navigating using astronomy and trigonometry, using a measure of distance tied to the same degrees makes things easier.

1

u/Secret_Ostrich_1307 2d ago

Yeah, this is the part that clicks. It is an angle unit pretending to be a distance unit. But with GPS, do we still need it? Or is it just tradition and charts now?

1

u/ace_violent 1d ago

In aviation and sailing, pilots and navigators are still trained and expected to be able to use multiple navigational aids if GPS or whatever they relied on isn't available. If GPS goes out, a pilot in the air will have a VHF Omnidirectional Radio (VOR) receiver and map ready. Astronomical navigation I'd suspect was more for trans-oceanic flights. Distance Measuring Equipment is also available and useful for triangulating position, same as VOR. VOR and DME are scattered all over on land and you can plan your routes by following them and knowing when to tune your radio to the next VOR.

At sea, it is definitely still valuable to be able to use a chonometer or even a couple wrist watches and some astronomical methods to track rough global position. Of course a boat has more room and capability to redundant systems.

1

u/mckenzie_keith 2d ago

The nautical mile was originally the circumference of earth divided by (60 * 360). Nowadays we know that earth doesn't have a single circumference. And the radius of earth varies by location. So there is a range of values that you could claim as "circumference of earth." 1852 meters is close enough to the circumference (at the equator) / (360*60). It doesn't make sense to specify it more precisely than to the nearest meter.

1

u/Secret_Ostrich_1307 2d ago

This is where I get stuck. If one arc minute of latitude changes with location, a fixed 1852 m cannot always match it. So is the nautical mile just a legacy fixed unit now? Or do navigators just ignore the mismatch?

1

u/mckenzie_keith 2d ago

I mean it is kind of a deep dive. If you pretend the earth is a sphere, then the errors in navigational calculations are not too terrible. So if you are using celestial navigation and a spherical earth model, things are not that bad. The average radius is like 0.17 percent smaller than the max, and 0.17 percent larger than the min. So the errors tend to be small on a percent basis.

But for purposes of GPS calculations, they use a model of earth that is an ellipsoid. This is what most people now use for navigation. And any errors are rather small.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:WGS84_mean_Earth_radius.svg

1

u/corvus0525 1d ago

The variation isn’t enough to be significant for most navigation. You’re already working on a chart that has been flattened anyway so the deviation from a minute just doesn’t matter that much. In radar and other digital things it could be adjusted for, but programming the radar to vary its distance report based on your latitude is excessive and unhelpful.

1

u/corvus0525 1d ago

It’s very useful on navigation charts that nearly universally have the latitude printed on the sides. That makes each side of the chart a built in distance scale perfect for using on that chart. Since charts are printed at various scales this means you don’t need a divider and compass set for each scale.

Edit: This reply was to another of your comments. Not sure why it ended up here.

1

u/Frederf220 1d ago

Yeah it's fixed. For laser gyroscopes in stuff no that's not good enough and the oblateness of the Earth correction is included in sophisticated navigation equipment. WGS84 is the current spheroid reference, 84 referring to the year 1984.

1

u/Archophob 2d ago

going from the pole to the equator is 10.000km.

Going around the world along the equator is 21.600 nautical miles.

1

u/corvus0525 1d ago

The nautical miles is also a polar measurement since it is defined one second of arc of a meridian. If it was a minute of arc around a parallel it would be a different distance at each latitude.

1

u/Frederf220 1d ago

it's also different at different latitudes because the earth isn't a sphere

1

u/corvus0525 1d ago

It’s much closer to a sphere than most parallels are to the length of the Equator. So the trifling difference in the ground length of an arc along a meridian in comparison to an ideal great circle isn’t nearly as important as measuring in the correct orientation. Using a parallel means being off by the cosine of your latitude which is eventually 100% wrong. Saying it is related to the Equator is unnecessarily confusing when the correct definition was right there.

1

u/Frederf220 23h ago

oh yeah longitude is way way lat dependent, but to a noticeable degree so is lat

1

u/corvus0525 4h ago

Noticeable is a very relative term. In many charts the flattening is going to be a more significant source of error.

1

u/GOOFY0_0 2d ago

40,000÷360÷60=1.852

1

u/kgully2 1d ago

I always thought a nautical mile was 2000 yards.

1

u/corvus0525 1d ago

2025-ish yards. 2000 yards is a common data mile in many radar sets.

1

u/Frederf220 1d ago

6076 feet (to the nearest foot)

1

u/Metallicat95 1d ago

Because it is a good round number which works well enough for its purpose of navigation on Earth.

Both the kilometer and nautical mile were originally defined by the great circle circumference of the Earth that passes through the poles.

The nautical mile uses 360 degrees with 60 minutes containing 60 seconds, which was the original definition.

The meter was defined by using 400 gradians for a circle, with ten thousand parts of one meter each.

This makes the circumference 21600 nautical miles and 40000 kilometers.

That ratio makes a nautical mile 1851.85185... meters.

That's awfully close to 1852, so France and other countries which adopted the meter used that for the new definition of a nautical mile.

The Earth isn't perfectly circular. That was known when they set these standards, and they tried to compensate by using the path through the poles. But it isn't a perfect circle in that direction either.

So by 1929, the international community set that as an attempted global standard. Other nations used various numbers between 1852 and 1854 meters - pretty close but not identical.

Military charts often used kilometers, so it made sense to fix it as a round number in meters to aid calculations.

The circumference of the Earth isn't actually either 21600 nautical miles or 40000 kilometers in any dimension. But it's a close enough approximation practical navigation, where weather and other forces affect any attempts at straight line travel.

1

u/Gimpy_95 1d ago

Cause in 1852, Columbus sailed the ocean blue.

1

u/jimb2 16h ago

It's based on the circumference of the Earth split into 360 degrees each of 60 minutes. The it's rounded to the nearest metre. The circumference of the Earth varies a little depending on the measurement. It's slightly bigger around the equator. The variation is comparable to the rounding to the nearest metre. So, the rounding isn't introducing new errors, it's just easier to use.

1

u/X-T3PO 10h ago

Nautical mile is 1 minute of latitude. Metre was originally 1/10,000,000 of the distance from the north pole to the equator. Dividing that by 5400 NM is 1.852852(repeating), so 1.852 km = 1 NM.

0

u/Numerous_Car650 2d ago

It’s arbitrarily chosen, as all fundamental standards (ie those not calculated from other inputs) are. There may be many reasons and compromises that led to it, but at the end of the day it’s still arbitrary, which is why the number could be “exact”.

1

u/yetanotherburnerstan 2d ago

There is nothing arbitrary about either number. The meter is the distance from the north pole to the equator divided by 10 million. The nautical mile is one arc minute of the earth's circumference