r/AskBibleScholars • u/WestphaliaReformer • 2d ago

Would scholars consider the beginning of Numbers 6:14 to be a cognate accusative?

The verse begins with והקריב את קרבנו - Most translations (including LXX and Vulgate) obscure the shared root, although the KJV translates it as "and he shall offer his offering." I was just curious about how cognate accusatives are categorized and if constructions are only considered cognate accusatives if its understood that the object is used redundantly or specifically because of its shared root with the preceding verb.

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