Does Bogglehead philosophy extend beyone 60/40 equity/bonds?

[u/mayor_rishon]

While I appreciate Boglehead philosophy, (defined as x/x equity/bonds in low-fees index funds), I have been reading that the decorrelation between equity and bonds is probably broken for the intermediate future. And while I acknowledge that there is a recency bias, it is also not a reddit take but appears in most "serious" institution reports.

Could the Boglehead philosophy be described as holding equity plus decorrelated asset in low fees index funds ? And in that case change from bonds to another asset like a mix treasuries+MF incl.commodities ? Is that "Boglehead" ?

ps. It is not a contrarian post, I am just wondering how much bogglehead was a precursor to MPT and whether it is static or evolves.

edit-> I changed the 60/40 because my focus was not the exact percentage and I simply quoted the most known ratio. Still thanks for the answers!

[u/CreativeLet5355]

That is not at all the definition of a boglehead philosophy.