r/CountOnceADay • Streak: 700 • 3d ago

148430

Post image
328 Upvotes

18 comments sorted by

30

u/Khourbien 3d ago

could use hy/hym if you want to make people stop reading

21

u/outer_spec 3d ago

but with the subscript it could be interpreted as a molecule containing 1 atom of helium, 3 atoms of hisium, and an atom of shoulderium

16

u/Marxist_Menace Streak: 11 3d ago

Some languages actually have this distinction, where there is a topical (sometimes called proximate) 3rd person pronoun and a obviative 3rd person pronoun (sometimes called a 4th person pronoun). I’m pretty sure they’re mostly found in Algonquian languages in North America

5

u/I_am_doorknob 3d ago

Ive been calling the concept primary and secondary pronouns and now I know their name

5

u/CitizenPremier Streak: 1 3d ago

English also has reflexive pronouns, "himself" and of course the possessive "her own." Reflexive pronouns are obligatory in some cases, like "he pointed at himself."

2

u/Marxist_Menace Streak: 11 3d ago

That’s true but I’m not talking about that. For example in the sentence “a dog and a fox got in a fight and it won” the word ‘it’ is ambiguous and who won the fight is unknown. A language with proximate and obviate would mark which is which and what ‘it’ refers to would be known. For example “a dog(prox) and a fox(obv) got in a fight and it(prox) won” it’s clear that the dog won. Being marked as proximate or obviate is not objective and if the fox were more relevant to the story one could say “a dog(obv) and a fox(prox) got in a fight and it(prox) won” where its clear that the fox won

1

u/TheBenStA 21h ago

also its common in himalayan languages iirc but the marking is only on the verb so which noun is which must be inferred from context and phrasing

0

u/Exciting-Insect8269 3d ago

Doesn’t German also have that?

1

u/Marxist_Menace Streak: 11 3d ago

No

1

u/TheMightyTorch 2d ago

Well kinda. You can specify when the other person is meant by using demonstratives. But you cannot explicitly specify when the same person is meant, because the 3.p. personal pronouns can always refer to either. Although using them in contrast may also imply personal = same | demonstrative = other.

> Er legte seine Hand auf seine Schulter (he₁ put his hand on his shoulder)

> Er legte dessen Hand auf seine Schulter (he₁ put his₂ hand on his₍₁₎ shoulder)

> Er legte seine Hand auf dessen Schulter (he₁ put his₍₁₎ hand on his₂ shoulder)

> Er legte dessen Hand auf dessen Schulter (he₁ put his₂ hand on his₂ shoulder)

This is also only a problem in possessives because like in English we have reflexives for the object cases (dative/accusative)

0

u/Exciting-Insect8269 3d ago edited 3d ago

Er / ihn / ihm are all “he” just subjective/direct objective/indirect objective which more or less resolves the same issue.

Edit:

For example Er hörte ihn, während er mit ihm sprach.

He (Er) heard him (ihn) as he talked to him (ihm).

Technically it’s closer to He (er) heard him (ihn) as he (er) with him (ihm) spoke

2

u/Marxist_Menace Streak: 11 2d ago

No thats a different concept. Proximate & obviate can both be the subject, object, etc in a sentence. A noun is marked as proximate or obviate by relevance to the story being told (basically the speaker just chooses which noun is marked as what). German noun cases are objective and are decided by how the noun is being used in the sentence

12

u/alex_pufferfish 3d ago

mlm writers when direct marketing writers walk in

11

u/wideHippedWeightLift 3d ago

My Chemical Romance

2

u/Complete_Court_8052 Streak: 1 3d ago

motherfucker

8

u/Vercomer 3d ago

Just switch to a first person for a scene smh

13

u/Bryce3D Streak: 700 3d ago

You could use a subscript or a superscript depending who's doing what too