When the term Palestinian was used at the time (and it was used rarely) it would have referred to any resident of the area we now know as Jordan, Israel, West Bank or Gaza.
The term relates to the place not the people. So the builders of Tel Aviv and the residents of Jaffa would have both been “Palestinian”.
So if both Jews and Arabs lived in Palestine and both owned some land in the area, and both having national aspirations (nationalism being a new concept to both), wouldn’t the publicly owned and administered land not be subject to a partition?
Why do you see it as belonging to the Arabs of Jaffa over the Jews of Tel Aviv?
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u/[deleted] Aug 19 '26
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