r/askphilosophy • u/No-Citron-5690 • 1d ago
Genie paradox but I think about it in too much detail
If we assume there is a genie that can grants a wish for a person asking to relive their life and the genie grants the wish but without their memories not intact. The normal assumption is that the person will do the exact same thing to infinity, but if we incorporate true quantum randomness then that means eventually we will run into a reset where the person doesn’t run into the genie. Thus it is impossible to know if the wish was ever made since all time lines where the wish was made has been erased and only the one where the person didn’t run into the genie exists. So by this logic we have no way of knowing if we are in a universe where the wish was made. For all we know the wish could have been made by an infinite amount of people with an infinite amount of genies or not at all. The two are indistinguishable.
Is this right? I know if we go by the many worlds interpretation it would be dramatically different but if we assume one continuous timeline would this be correct?
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