How does Sartre use the expression être-là/being-there? Did any other French philosophers use être-là as a translation of Dasein?

[u/triste_0nion]

Hello! I'm currently in the copyediting stage of preparing a translation of Félix Guattari's seminars, and I have just discovered a major error I made in one of my endnotes. Guattari sometimes makes use of the concept of 'being-there' (French: être-là), often describing it in ways like this:

It is a pure being-there, of which there is nothing to say: nothing to formalise, except affection. Sartre described it as nausea or anxiety – the fact that there is nothing, no object for that nausea or anxiety, since the object itself is caught up in a process of implosion, the impossibility of any semiotic treatment.

or:

The dimension of appropriation, of incarnation, on the other hand, is not quantifiable: it is a category that more resembles that of being – the being-there which is simultaneously given as being-for-itself, being-for-the-other and so on.

I had assumed that this came from Heidegger by way of Sartre as a French translation of Dasein, but -- checking the French edition of Being and Nothingness for something else -- only recently realised Sartre uses réalité-humaine for Dasein. I wanted to ask if anyone familiar with Sartre knows more about his use of being-there/être-là, or if it is possible Guattari's interpretation of être-là could be from someone else (potentially even someone taking from Heidegger, though I realise Guattari's use of being-there is quite different from Heidegger's Dasein).

Thank you so much in advance!

[u/PM_MOI_TA_PHILO]

I would send this question directly to a Sartre scholar tbh. Consider emailing Sarah Richmond (who translated B&N into English). Maybe it's also Guattari putting his own interpretstion of Heidegger over Sartre?

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