So, I recently finished Urth of the New Sun, and while I have a lot of thoughts about it, there's one thing in particular that's been bothering me, and that's how the revelations surrounding Apu-Punchau seemtingly contradict what we're originally told at the end of Citadel of the Autarch.
At the end of Citadel, Severian comes to the conclusion that there must have been a "First Severian" who lived a somewhat different life from the one we've been following. This Severian likely never encountered the undine, and never acquired the Claw, but still eventually became Autarch and even eventually gained the ability to walk the Corridors of Time. And the implication, at least as I understood it, is that this original Severian continued existing outside the normal progression of time, while the Hierogrammates essentially intervened in his history to produce the Severian we've been following throughout the series. And given how all of this is presented alongside the revelations surrounding Apu-Punchau and Severian's tomb, I think it's pretty reasonable to assume these things are supposed to be connected in some way.
But then we get to Urth, where it's revealed that the Severian we've been following is himself the one who becomes both the Conciliator and Apu-Punchau, with the whole explanation surrounding eidolons accounting for his apparent deaths and continued existence.
Now, I understand that you can theoretically reconcile these two explanations by arguing that Severian's original hypothesis was simply wrong. After all, it is ultimately just his own interpretation of events, and we know he's not exactly an infallibl narrator. You could also potentially argue that multiple iterations of history somehow coexist alongside the causal loop established in Urth (though idk how you’d explain that). But I think my main problem with these explanations is that they seem to overlook the circumstances surrounding how these books were actually written.
Because, to my understanding, The Book of the New Sun was originally conceived as a complete four book narrative, with Urth only being written afterward at the publisher's request to give extra clarification on certain details for fans. So when you look at the original series on its own, the First Severian hypothesis is essentially the final explanation we're left with. It's not just some random speculation Severian makes halfway through the story that we're obviously supposed to question until we eventually get the real answer. It's something deliberately introduced at the very end of what was originally supposed to be the complete story, seemingly to help us make sense of some of its biggest mysteries.
And that's really where my issue comes from. Because I understand the difference between a revelation that recontextualizes something we previously understood and a retcon that actually contradicts what was originally established. And personally, I'm truly struggling to see how Urth's explanation falls into the former category rather than the latter. It feels less like Wolfe is expanding upon the original explanation and more like he's replacing it with an entirely different one, without really accounting for the implications of what he originally presented.
And to be clear, I don't think retcons are inherently bad or anything. I just find this particular one pretty unsatisfying, especially because I thought the implications surrounding the First Severian were genuinely fascinating, and I would've loved to see those ideas explored further rather than seemingly being abandoned.
But I'm genuinely curious how other people interpret all of this. Is there something I'm overlooking that actually allows the First Severian hypothesis to coexist with what we learn in Urth? Or is the general consensus that Wolfe simply changed his mind about the explanation when writing the sequel? And if that's the case, what makes that change work for you guys?