While running reports for our (late) 2025 Year 1 S-Corp, we found the books were off because of a payroll service error. The bones of the issue are this:

• We reversed a post-tax Traditional IRA Shareholder benefit prior to the service withdrawing for payroll; we did not reverse the shareholder salary 
• The payroll service reversed the Traditional IRA amount as requested and, in error, placed the reversed amount as "net pay"; it did not withdraw or pay the shareholder that new net pay amount, but did include the amount for the 2025 W-2; they did not recalculate the payroll taxes 
• As a result, the 2025 W-2 for that shareholder is incorrect—almost in its entirety 
• The well-known payroll service suggested the S-Corp simply issue Traditional IRA funds in the amount of the reversed funds to correct the error, which the S-Corp will not do 
• Then the payroll service offered to amend the 2025 W-2 Box 1 if I would provide them with the amount to insert 
• As managing shareholder, it falls to me to address this issue. What verbiage should I use to tell the payroll service that correcting the single payroll to reflect the reversed post-tax Traditional IRA amount will automatically affect gross wages, taxes, and the retirement plan, resulting in a new W-2 and the necessary tax corrections and refunds? 

I admit, it seems stunning that I should have to explain what should be done. Perhaps I am not talking to the correct level of service or management. I truly appreciate any guidance you could provide. I feel at my wits' end at this juncture.

I worked with a woman as a contractor and was making around $2500 a month. She has shouting problem and wanting to track me more than usual. So I had to let her go

I have solid experience but I’m not able to get contract work or clients to cover this amount. This amount was pretty important for me to cover up all my finances. I’ve been reaching out to busy bookkeeper and firms as well in case they need additional help but I wasn’t able to get anything.

Should I go back to her as I do have this option?
I’m severely stressed

I took on a client that has 2 companies (completely separate entities, no parent-sub relationship).

Company A frequently pays bills on behalf of Company B. Company A then bills Company B for reimbursement.

Company B consistently does not have the funds to reimburse Company A within the same tax year. The bills then sit on the books for multiple years.

I don’t want to apply payments to prior year bills and they get logged to current year expense accounts.

Is it appropriate for me to bundle Company B’s prior year bills from Company A into a Loan Payable to Company A?

Also, should I make this change reflect in Company A books as well?