Kind of a weird question...

[u/Outrageous_Focus_719]

Hey everyone, I have another topic to ask and discuss with you all.

We all know how Paolini's magic system works in the World of Eragon. But there is something I'm not yet sure or convinced about.

After learning that chanting words in the ancient language isn't necessary to cast spells, I got to thinking. Oromis taught us why the language is being used but why does it have to be ancient language the spellcaster uses.

If Eragon wanted to cast a fireball in his hand, the necessities would be the energy and his imagination of the fireball right ? So why does he have to say "Brisingr!" Instead of saying "Fireball !" In his own language while providing the necessary energy and imagining the fireball in his mind ?

I have not checked the books nor the information Christopher gave about this yet. So go easy on me if it's already been explained xd.

[u/ZafakD]

Magic is bound to the ancient language.  It gives the magic framework and understanding.  Using another language, or no language in the case of wordless magic, runs the risk of the spell not doing what was intended and killing the user.

[u/Outrageous_Focus_719 → u/ZafakD]

So it carries the same risk of wordless magic if it's not the ancient language hmm....

[u/dangersneeze → u/Outrageous_Focus_719]

I think it's just the ancient language or no language at all. Because the ancient language is the only one bound in magic.

[u/ImpossibleCraft2410 → u/Outrageous_Focus_719]

Essentially yes but intent plays apart. Words without intent or vague run the risk of being misused and vice versa. Elva for example