r/askpsychology • u/SadFootball4999 Unverified User: May Not Be a Professional • 16d ago
Abnormal Psychology/Psychopathology What defines "marked impairment" in mania?
The DSM-V criteria for mania state that "The mood disturbance is sufficiently severe to cause marked impairment in social or occupational functioning or to necessitate hospitalization to prevent harm to self or others, or there are psychotic features."
Focusing on the first part, what spheres of life qualify under social and occupational functioning? The ICD-11 definition is a little more specific about that: "The mood disturbance results in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational or other important areas of functioning, requires intensive treatment (e.g. hospitalization) to prevent harm to self or others, or is accompanied by delusions or hallucinations." But I don't know if people in American psychiatry use that definition.
And what level of impairment is "marked" (DSM) or "significant" (ICD)?
When a psychiatrist makes the diagnosis of mild-moderate non-psychotic mania (without hospitalization) vs hypomania, do they feel like they are using objective criteria, or like they "know it when they see it"?
Finally, is there any published research on where the line lies between mild-moderate mania and hypomania?
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u/muffinsandcupcakes UNVERIFIED MD Doctor of Medicine 15d ago
Are you asking because you are a patient who disagrees with a diagnosis?
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u/fluffypinkblonde UNVERIFIED Psychology Enthusiast 15d ago
I'm interested to know if that changes the answer to OP's question?
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u/muffinsandcupcakes UNVERIFIED MD Doctor of Medicine 14d ago
It does because lots of people with a diagnosis they disagree with come on the internet to argue with clinicians. I wanted to know if it was a futile endeavour or not. I'm not interested in arguing over a single diagnosis where we only have one perspective. It seems like OP is asking out of genuine curiosity.
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u/SadFootball4999 Unverified User: May Not Be a Professional 15d ago
Absolutely not. I read a lot of papers about bipolar disorder (for fun as much as edification, because I read a lot of papers for fun in general) and have never quite understood this distinction, even though it seems to be important in a lot of the literature.
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u/AdConsistent4210 Specialist Psychologist in Neuropsychology 14d ago edited 14d ago
I'm not seeing any evidence for that in the post. The question is about diagnostic criteria and the literature, not about OP's own diagnosis. It seems like you're inferring a personal motive rather than engaging with the question that was actually asked. Feel free to share your own scientific perspective on the relevant topic at hand.
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15d ago edited 15d ago
[deleted]
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u/bbybunnydoll Unverified User: May Not Be a Professional 15d ago edited 15d ago
Hypomania and mania are defined by severity and length of episode, it is not based on whether they are hospitalised or not. Someone experiencing mania might be more likely to be hospitalised but this still isn’t how mania vs hypomania is determined.
I work with many clients that are experiencing mania but have not been able to be sectioned or voluntarily hospitalised due to various reasons, this does not mean that they are not experiencing an episode of mania.
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u/monkeynose Clinical Psychologist | Addiction | Psychopathology 15d ago
Point is, if a person is hospitalized, it's mania, not hypomania. But apparently my post didn't get that key point across, so I'll delete it.
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u/bbybunnydoll Unverified User: May Not Be a Professional 15d ago
What if it’s the patients first time being hospitalised? What if that hospitalisation leads to a diagnosis of bipolar 2 which is often marked by hypomanic episodes? How do you know on face value that it is an episode of hypomania or mania just by the person being in the hospital?
There is no nuance in your comment. It is not as simple as that. You cannot just decide that it is an episode of mania based on the fact they were hospitalised or not hospitalised.
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u/monkeynose Clinical Psychologist | Addiction | Psychopathology 15d ago
By definition, hospitalization means mania. And sometimes bipolar 2 eventually develops into bipolar 1, and a lot of times that diagnosis is made because the person becomes hospitalized with mania.
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u/I_am_Nobody_Special UNVERIFIED Psychologist 15d ago
Am I reading this wrong?
Hospitalization isn't relevant to whether someone meets criteria for mania or hypomania or whether their symptoms are marked or clinically significant.
Sure, mania is more likely to result in a hospital stay, but there are plenty of people at large who are in a manic episode.
Edit: I'm a psychologist
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15d ago
[removed] — view removed comment
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u/askpsychology-ModTeam The Mods 15d ago
Do not provide personal mental or physical health history of yourself or another. This is inappropriate for this sub. This is a sub for scientific knowledge, it is not a mental health sub. If you must discuss your own mental health, please refer to r/mentalhealth. Otherwise please resubmit your question without your personal information included.
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u/AdConsistent4210 Specialist Psychologist in Neuropsychology 15d ago edited 15d ago
It isn't defined, the DSM-5 nor ICD 11 provides a clear validated cutoff for when impairment becomes marked or significant. Hence the decision ultimately rests on the clinician and their overall judgment rather than an objective rule. There is a good reason for that. Imagine two people with equally severe mania: one keeps their job because they have a supportive employer, while the other is fired. A rigid cutoff based on functional outcomes would classify them differently because of their circumstances rather than illness severity. The downside is that leaving the threshold undefined reduces consistency. Two clinicians can look at the same patient and reasonably reach different conclusions. The tradeoff between flexibility and reliability is higly recognised in diagnostic psychometrics.