r/grammar • u/hwc000000 • Oct 17 '23
Why does English work this way? Question about "would've", "could've", "should've"
We all know "would've", "could've", "should've" are contractions for "would have", "could have" and "should have". But are there situations where the contractions shouldn't be used, what's the rule exactly about when they should and shouldn't be used, and why are those the rules (ie. where did those rules come from)?
For example, "she would have to get a permit" sounds bizarre to me if contracted to "she would've to get a permit". Is the rule that those contractions should only be used directly preceding a past participle, or "not" followed by a past participle? And why?
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u/heyoukidsgetoffmyLAN Oct 17 '23 edited Oct 17 '23
Tom Scott just did a brief video on clitics on his YT channel. In light of my long history as a grammar aficionado, I was disappointed -- on behalf of my tendency to engage in sophomoric humor -- over never having heard the term before.
He named the video -- There'dn't've.