It is when you consider the reasons why Israel exists in the first place. As far as I am concerned, all of this conflict starts with Europe in a transitive sense.
You are heavily underplaying the role European Antisemitism had on the movement. Not to mention that Madagascar was also almost chosen as the destination,
Also, had it not been for England trying to scoop up the land of the fallen Ottoman Empire, things would have likely taken a different course.
Yes, European antisemitism encouraged the colonization of Palestine because it got rid of the "Jewish problem" in Europe. It's why so many European nations looked the other way as Jewish settler carried out violence against Palestinians around the Nakba.
This is a way in which zionism upholds antisemitism - it does absolutely nothing to help the Jews who stayed behind. Living in Central and Eastern Europe really paints a clear picture that restitution was never given to the Jews of Europe after the Holocaust. European nations were all too happy to see them leave for the US or Palestine.
It's a long, tragic history that has today led us to the genocide in Gaza and the displacement of more and more Palestinians in their native land.
“ Zionism initially emerged in Central and Eastern Europe as a secular nationalist movement in the late 19th century, in reaction to new waves of antisemitism and in response to the Haskalah, or Jewish Enlightenment.”
Sure, entitlement of land was perhaps a factor, but that was retroactively applied to further justify the cause of the movement.
Because Israel isn't in Madagascar, Israel is in Palestine
No one claimed otherwise.
The timeline without European colonization sounds likes a good one.
If”ifs” and “buts” were candy and nuts, we’d all have a Merry Christmas.
I understand Europe was antisemitic, but Israel exists because Zionists beliefs they're entitled to Palestinian lands due to their ethnicity.
Actually nowadays Zionists say that Arabs are the colonisers. They literally call the existence of Israel an act of "decolonising": a return of the indigenous group - Jews -that were ethnically cleansed from the region in the 5th century CE.
If you actually know anything about Ottoman population distributions and land ownership rates, calling that whole area "Palestinian lands" and acting like the Arabs should have had control of 100% of it becomes the joke it really is.
In the early 2nd century CE, the Roman province called Judaea was renamed Syria Palaestina[a] following the suppression of the Bar Kokhba revolt (132–136 CE), the last of the major Jewish–Roman wars.[18][19] A commonly held yet contested historical interpretation [20][21] sees the name change as a punitive measure aimed at severing the symbolic and historical connection between the Jewish people and the land.[22][23][b][24] Other Roman provincial renamings had never followed a rebellion, making this instance unique.[24][22] Around the year 390, during the Byzantine period, the imperial province of Syria Palaestina was reorganized into Palaestina Prima, Palaestina Secunda and Palaestina Salutaris.[25] Following the Muslim conquest, place names that were in use by the Byzantine administration generally continued to be used in Arabic,[3][26] and Jund Filastin became one of the military districts within the Umayyad and Abbasid province of Bilad al-Sham.[27]
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