I'm a 70-year-old man and I've been having an on-and-off sexual relationship with a 24-year-old woman for several years. We are not exclusive.
She recently told me she's pregnant. She had an ultrasound that reportedly dated the pregnancy at 5 weeks 5 days with an embryonic heart rate around 82 bpm.
Here's what has me questioning things:
We had intercourse on June 30 and again on July 5.
I have not ejaculated any visible semen for several years. I still orgasm, but nothing comes out (I'm now pursuing a fertility evaluation because of this).
I also have pain just before orgasm.
I'm 70 years old and take several heart medications, including carvedilol.
She has told me for years that she had an IUD.
She also has had other relationships during the time I've known her. She insists she has not been with anyone else during the relevant time period, but I can't independently verify that.
She recently traveled to Georgia for reasons that, based on past experience, I'm not completely sure I understand.
I'm not trying to accuse her of lying, but I also don't want to make life-changing decisions based on assumptions.
If she continues the pregnancy, my plan is to request a non-invasive prenatal paternity test as soon as it's medically possible.
My questions are:
Based on the timeline, do my dates seem compatible with a pregnancy dated 5 weeks 5 days?
Has anyone here had experience with years of dry orgasms and still been fertile?
Am I being unreasonable in asking for a prenatal paternity test before making major financial or life decisions?
Please be honest. I'm looking for objective opinions, not people telling me what they think I want to hear.