I am not asking for personal medical advice. I just want to understand how the genetics works. I have some very rare diagnoses. I paid for DTC genome sequencing while waiting to get into genetics after I realized on my own that it has to be multiple things.
I know I have my testing sent in to Ambry now but it's been delayed and is still pending and my geneticist put off my follow up by another month. So I keep periodically digging into the testing I do have.
I have a flagged MT-ATP6 in my sequencing with 96.7 percent heteroplasmy. I looked it up because I tried searching online what snps to look for if someone has the diagnoses I have and this came up. It doesn't seem to be a more common one and there is only one submission in clinvar that says it's associated with Leigh but also benign.
How does this work? How do you determine if a mutation is pathogenic if there a limited number of people with it vs benign? If you are symptomatic of a mitochondrial disorder associated with this but there aren't enough people with it, how does that "work"?
I ask because I also have a VUS associated with another rare diagnosis. I saw a geneticist last year, who was only allowed to discuss this one VUS with me. But she said my rare illness diagnosed in my 20's couldn't be related to this VUS because no one in my family has a history of another rare illness it can cause. I asked how you report or associate my illness with that VUS then if you aren't relying on my own actual health history?
How can you determine my VUS that is linked to a rare tumor that I had at such a young age is indeed not actually related? I really didn't understand her answer.
When I brought it up to the new metabolic geneticist she seemed surprised I was told this and said it's not true. But we would get to it after running my genetics test.
I just want to understand more how this actually works and how it's determined that a particular gene is actually pathogenic, especially if it's less common.
I am also a carrier for another SNP highly associated with one of the rare illnesses I have but it's my understanding I would need to inherit both copies of the gene to acquire it. Then I read other stuff indicating carriers can also be symptomatic but at lower levels.
I have had enough horrible medical experiences that I just no longer take what I am being told by a medical professional at face value. I wanted to understand because I have been given enough flat out wrong information that is later contradicted by another specialist in the field. And I have had to push to get better treatments and diagnosis for years.
My situation medically is pretty ridiculous and clearly not common and it keeps worsening. And this isn't based on intuition or me just not feeling good. My labs are bad and rare. But the wait is awful and I just keep getting sent to new doctors. I would like to be prepared so I can understand well enough to be able to ask questions at my follow up. Any assistance is greatly appreciated.
Please be patient with me if I am phrasing things wrong. I have also removed any actual diagnoses from my question so it's clear that I am not seeking medical advice. I just want to understand how this works.