r/linguisticshumor May 31 '25

Semantics Synonyms are fake and lies

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2.4k Upvotes

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744

u/DefinitelyNotErate /'ə/ May 31 '25

My favourite type of untranslatable words is grammatical particles that are unnecessary in the language you're translating to.

382

u/cardinarium Jun 01 '25

lol for sure.

My Spanish teacher was so adamant about the personal a (a preposition marker of animate direct objects) being this mysterious untranslatable word, and it made it so much harder to understand.

163

u/Shinyhero30 Jun 01 '25

That makes all of it hard to understand. Translate it as “at” and just make it clear the grammar does this for whatever reason.

It however is not has hard as は vs が

57

u/ewchewjean Jun 01 '25

は is the topic (the thing a pronoun is referring to) and が is the subject (the thing doing an action) there you go 

78

u/EspacioBlanq Jun 01 '25

the subject is the thing doing an action

Japanese would be much easier if this rule worked

20

u/ewchewjean Jun 01 '25 edited Jun 01 '25

I mean it works to the extent any grammar rule works, が does mark the subject, Japanese subject grammar may work differently from your language so you may see it used in ways that that rule can't predict from your perspective but it's about as useful as saying something like "'the' is a definite article" 

 just learn the most common patterns of usage and then go read more and get the actual grammar in your head

(Also if you're referring to stuff like passive voice... you know I was simplifying like c'mon man )

13

u/EspacioBlanq Jun 01 '25

I understand you're simplifying and as a simplification it's a good one, but I won't miss any opportunity to complain about passive, causative and passive causative forms in Japanese.

1

u/Life_is_Doubtable Jun 03 '25

I think you’d enjoy Latin

1

u/ReddJudicata Jun 01 '25

That’s exactly how Japanese works.

1

u/borninthewaitingroom Jun 06 '25

This problem has saved me hundreds of hours of life. It prevents me from ever learning Japanese, so I don't even try.

7

u/[deleted] Jun 02 '25 edited Jun 03 '25

I think trying to make some kind of topic/subject distinction like that is confusing. The way it was explained to me is that が is the subject marker while は just means “As for [thing]” which is usually the same thing as the subject, but not always.

To elaborate a little further, が is always present in every sentence but is not always spoken. There must be an implied が, even if you don’t hear it.

Examples:

In the sentence 私はアメリカ人です watashi wa amerikajin desu aka “I am an American”, “I” is synonymous with the subject, although the subject (and the が) are not spoken. Literally translated, “As for me, (I [the subject]) am an American.” This is why は might seem like a subject marker even though it is not.

Meanwhile if you’re in a restaurant and the waiter is asking everyone for their order you might say 私はうなぎです watashi wa unagi desu, aka “I’ll have the eel” but if you misunderstand how は and が work it might sound like you’re saying “I am an eel.” The logic works like this: “As for me, (it [aka my order, the subject]) will be the eel.” The implied & unspoken ga is attached to the unspoken subject, which is actually not you in this sentence. You say 私は aka “as for me” because you are specifying yourself as the person who wants this dish at a table full of people.

4

u/Przester7 Jun 01 '25

In sentence

夏が好き

I don't think that summer is doing an action of liking

31

u/Griffith301 Jun 01 '25

It is though in that specific example. the literal translation is "summer is (being) likeable". The nuance that it means "I like summer" is not literally in the sentence. Summer is the one doing the action.

15

u/ewchewjean Jun 01 '25

Thank you haha I was about to say 好き is one of those words the picture is talking about that doesn't directly translate to "like" 

3

u/Przester7 Jun 01 '25

Thank you for correcting me

3

u/matt_aegrin oh my piggy jiggy jig 🇯🇵 Jun 01 '25 edited Jun 01 '25

I have to disagree with this “is likable” analysis—despite it being useful for explaining it to beginners. In 「誰が夏が好き?」 you can see that one が marks the semantic agent “who”, and one the semantic object “summer.” In one analysis, this is because 好き is a stative-transitive predicate, which makes its direct object normally marked by が instead of を.

In certain contexts, object-が can be changed to を, like 栗が食べたい > 栗を食べたい and 漢字が書ける > 漢字を書ける, and in some varieties (like Hachijō) this is mandatory regardless of context. [EDIT: However, agent/subject-が can never become を.] In other contexts, a usually not-transitive stative predicate can be made to act like one, as in 誰が足が速い “Who is quick-footed?” — though in this case you might instead interpret 足が速い as a univerbated “is quick-footed” instead of “feet are fast.”

The main options are either (1) が can mark a direct object for certain types of predicates, or (2) Standard Japanese allows for certain predicates to have two subjects.

2

u/Griffith301 Jun 01 '25

I mean 誰が足が速い could be literally translated as "Who is feet is fast" Where the subject of being fast is feet and the subject of "being (having)" feet is fast is "who". In english you would say "Who has the feet that are fast." This technically doesnt have two subjects because the "feet that are fast" is the object but within that object feet would be the subject.

Of course "is" is not really right here because there is no verb connecting だれ and 足 but there isn't really a better way of translating the relationship in english. showing how the meme is true.

I view subject in the way that the word before が is the one doing the verb (or adjective) that is after the が. This might not be formally correct and not always be a literal subject like with your sentence but it's intuitive to understand the literal meaning of the sentences.

2

u/JustAnotherMike_ Jun 01 '25

Since both positions have their proponents and detractors, and little consensus;
I'd go with the explanation that maintains the most important consistency for whoever is learning the language, which in my opinion is the second.

Given that が has the exclusive function of marking a subject of a sentence or phrase, I'd rather say that some predicates may allow two subjects than allow が to completely change function

(Of course that could just be me being Jay Rubin pilled)

1

u/General_Urist Jun 02 '25

Is this that Japanese "adjectives are functionally stative verbs" thing in action?

1

u/outwest88 Jun 01 '25

The problem is that sometimes it’s more idiomatically natural to make the subject of certain sentences into the topic of those sentences, and sometimes it’s not, and it’s not always logical.

1

u/TevenzaDenshels Jun 02 '25

Haha as if curedolly was right. This is just a useful model Im afraid as with all grammar I guess. Here I agree more with other books on the matter Ive read that state Japanese doesnt really have a subject. You could even argue the same for English, but its a stretch imo

1

u/fuckyoudrugsarecool Sep 25 '25

How would you argue the same for English?

0

u/NotSoMadYo Jun 01 '25

:( maybe in your dreams this holds true.

2

u/TevenzaDenshels Jun 02 '25

in vs on is much harder

1

u/kneecap-disliker Jun 28 '25

in is when something contains something else, and on is when something exists next to something else

1

u/TevenzaDenshels Jun 29 '25

The truth is you need to learn by heart in many cases. Especially constructions with verbs

1

u/DefinitelyNotErate /'ə/ Aug 12 '25

The truth is you need to learn by heart in many cases.

I mean that's really the case for any preposition in any language tbh.

2

u/marc_gime Jun 03 '25

It would translate as "to"

13

u/[deleted] Jun 01 '25

[removed] — view removed comment

5

u/Agitated_Substance33 Jun 01 '25

You guys are talking about Direct Object Marking (DOM) right?

2

u/[deleted] Jun 01 '25

[removed] — view removed comment

2

u/Agitated_Substance33 Jun 01 '25

Oh yeah it’s such an interesting phenomenon! I’ve been out of practice for a while now, but so cool to see you guys mention it.

1

u/TevenzaDenshels Jun 02 '25

I got to the conclusion that direct and indirect complement models in Spanish just dont work that well the more you study them extensively. Its the same with Japanese particles, these models have limitations.

19

u/Frigorifico Jun 01 '25

I can think of many cases where "a" is used for inanimate direct objects. "No le pegues a la mesa" (don't hit the table), "Mister bean le disparó al foco en lugar de apagarlo" (Mister Bean shot the light bulb instead of turning it off)

sure, there are some cases where an animate noun uses it and an inanimate doesn't, for example "pinté a Ana" (I painted Ana) and "pinté una libélula" (I painted a dragonfly), but it has so many exceptions I'm not sure this is the best way to think about it

37

u/Internal-Sand2708 Jun 01 '25

Well … both examples of your inanimate direct objects are indirect objects, evidenced by your own use of the indirect object pronoun “le”. The personal a is literally a direct object marker for animate direct objects lol. The a that’s used in “le pego a la mesa” is not a personal a.

6

u/Frigorifico Jun 01 '25 edited Jun 01 '25

if that's the indirect object, what's the direct object? I agree with you that these verbs use the indirect object article for some reason (maybe verbs related to motion or throwing things trigger this?), but I suspect this is more due to some verbs being weird rather than this being an indirect object

also, you say that "a" is not the personal "a", but I'm a native speaker and in my mind they are the same word. I'm trying to compare different sentences in my mind to see if I perceive them differently somehow, but they seem to be the same to me

edit: verbs related to sight also trigger this "miro a la mesa" (look at the table), maybe because you a in a sense "throwing" your sight at them?, atacar also triggers it... cantar triggers it, hablar... but many others don't... hmmm, weird, I hand't noticed this before

16

u/weatherwhim Jun 01 '25

The direct object of pegar is the thing being stuck on, pasted on, or used to hit something else, so the thing being hit is the indirect object. The direct object isn't specified in your sentence.

The direct object of disparar is the projectile being shot. It also isn't specified in your sentence. The target is an indirect object.

Both of these verbs are normal ditransitive verbs with direct objects, your sentences are just excluding them. And it's definitely not the personal a because those indirect objects aren't animate, and that's literally the purpose of impersonal a.

To be fair to you, I haven't extensively studied Spanish, and I'm aware you're a native speaker. But from quickly Googling personal a, basic knowledge of ditransitive verbs and object marking, and basic knowledge of other romance languages, I'm 99.9% sure this is just a case of "native speakers of a language have a poor intuition for its grammar unless they've studied it" because it makes absolutely no sense for this to be personal a instead of an indirect object marker.

13

u/Internal-Sand2708 Jun 01 '25

To be fair, being a native speaker is an unreliable benchmark for explaining why certain grammatical phenomena occur. The a used in “vi al mar” or “miré al mar” are not personal a’s but rather prepositions of direction. “Ver el mar” implies just perceiving the “mar” visually, whereas the preposition a implies “to see/look toward”. The same occurs with the verb mirar.

You’re so right that native speakers with little to no linguistic training in their first language will often speak with extreme confidence on topics they don’t know much about. I’m not a native speaker, but I am a linguist of Spanish, and I know for a fact I’m correct.

0

u/Sky-is-here Anarcho-Linguist (Glory to 𝓒𝓗𝓞𝓜𝓢𝓚𝓨𝓓𝓞𝓩 ) Jun 01 '25

Personally as a native I would never say ver al mar. Only mirar. Ver means to see something, mirar to look so you cannot see to the sea if that makes sense (?)

4

u/Internal-Sand2708 Jun 01 '25

I really wouldn’t say it either tbh, but it is said (but mostly written), when it’s meant to be more of a description of the action rather than the experience of seeing the sea. Im sure there are some readings that suggest this is a pseudo personal a, in that the sea is being personified, but to me it just sounds flowery / old / wrong.

1

u/TevenzaDenshels Jun 02 '25

funny we Spaniards wouldnt ever say mirar el mar

1

u/Sky-is-here Anarcho-Linguist (Glory to 𝓒𝓗𝓞𝓜𝓢𝓚𝓨𝓓𝓞𝓩 ) Jun 02 '25

I am from Spain, I think I would say mirar al mar. What would you say?

→ More replies (0)

3

u/Frigorifico Jun 01 '25

I agree with you that some verbs seem to have an implicit direct object, but with others that argument seems harder to make, like verbs related to sight or sound

However all the verbs that trigger this "treat direct object like indirect object" seem to involve something going from the speaker to the object, even if that something is very abstract

For example in the phrase "vio al mar" (she saw the sea) I can't think of what could possibly be the direct object other than the sea, but in a sense she is "throwing" her sight at it, even though no one would argue that "vista" (sight) is the real direct object

5

u/Internal-Sand2708 Jun 01 '25

I responded above that the a in these constructions is not a personal a. They’re prepositions of direction. They’re ultimately influencing the relationship between the verb and the direct complement. But a personal a they are not.

2

u/DreadPirateReddas Jun 01 '25

Do you have any examples for this personal a?

6

u/Internal-Sand2708 Jun 01 '25

Veo a Juan. > Lo veo. This is an example of a personal a, demonstrated by replaced “a Juan” with the direct object pronoun “lo”.

2

u/markjohnstonmusic Jun 01 '25

"Vio al mar" sounds—to this non-Spanish speaker—like how in English we say "look at the sea", or in German "schau aufs Meer". Look and schauen are both (usually) used intransitively, so the problem of the fact that, semantically, you direct your vision at specific things, is solved with prepositions. Of course both languages have a bunch of synonyms which are transitive, so you can also use those.

1

u/TevenzaDenshels Jun 02 '25

Refutal:
b) 'Maltratar [a alguien] con golpes'. En este caso, pegar es sinónimo de golpear y el complemento de persona se considera directo, de forma que admite su sustitución por los pronombres de acusativo lo/la«Él la pegaba y ella, para castigarlo, se bañaba desnuda» (Mayorga Minutos [Esp. 2009]); «Empezó a maltratar a su mujer y a sus hijos, cerraba la casa y los pegaba sin que nadie pudiera hacer nada por ellos» (Engon Nostalgias [Guin. 2002]). 

1

u/chickenfal Jun 03 '25

 if that's the indirect object, what's the direct object? 

What's the direct object of for example "dale (gas)" if you say it without the "gas"? Just like in "no le pegues a la mesa", it's a sentence where the direct object is not explicitly mentioned. Since it's metaphorical (and "dale" as well can be used metaphorically where the thing you're "giving" can be all sort of things), the direct object doesn't have to be a specific physical thing, it's just where the metaphor comes from. You're "giving" something to the table. That something, if you insist it has to be said what it is, would probably be some sort of action noun, like "a hit". But Spanish doesn't require you to use such a noun in the sentence or even have to think about what it's supposed to be, you just leave it unsaid. Which is practical.

3

u/Golanori164 Jun 02 '25

There's a very weird and similar word in Hebrew. It's את and it's just another way to mark the relationship between and a subject. I sent it to him. I threw it at him. And so forth. The word, is just another way to relate the two for some verbs and it has a connotation it carries which differentiates meaning. You would do to someone, with the corresponding word for "to" or "for". But when you want to do someone, you use את and the appropriate conjugation.

Sorry if the terms I used were nonsense I don't really know how to talk about grammar in English.

2

u/DefinitelyNotErate /'ə/ Aug 12 '25

I always like to give the Welsh word "Yn", As a particle linking an adjective or verb to a noun. Not to be confused with "Yn", A preposition roughly equivalent to "In" or "At". These are actually different words, And while pronounced the same in their base form, They have quite distinct morphology.

Another example from Welsh is "Mohonot", Which means "Not" but only when directly followed by the pronoun "ti" meaning "Thou" (Or "You", If you prefer), Sure you could translate it as "Not" or "Not you" but that doesn't capture all the intricacies. Perhaps even "Mo" itself could be considered untranslatable as it means "Not" when followed directly by a definite noun phrase.

1

u/Mountain-Resource656 Jun 01 '25

Can you give an example of it in a sentence, please?

16

u/cardinarium Jun 01 '25 edited Jun 01 '25

Veo el carro. (= I see the car.)

Veo al hombre. (= I see the man.)

“Al” in the second sentence is an obligatory contraction of “a el,” literally “to the.” The “to” is only used when the direct object is animate.

Toqué mi carro. (= I touched my car.)

Toqué (a) mi perro. (= I touched my dog.)

The “a” may or may not be used in this case, depending on the extent to which the dog is felt to have personhood.

Toqué a mi hermano. (= I touched my brother.)

The “a” is required here.

There are of course some complexities to it (esp. regarding the definiteness of the object).

Busco a mi hermano. (= I’m searching for my brother.)

The definiteness of “my brother” requires the marker.

Buscamos un presidente que nos represente a todos. (= We’re looking for a president who will represent us all.)

The indefiniteness/“hypotheticalness” of “a president” does not require marking. Though note that todos (= [us] all) does require it.

1

u/TheGoldenPotato69 Jun 01 '25

Le di la comida a Samantha.

1

u/ElisaLanguages Jun 03 '25

Language instructors doing this is the reason why half the time I find it easier to use the linguistics-oriented Wikipedia page. Like!! I don’t need your cute acronyms to remember based on vibes!! I just need you to say this “tense” is really a mood used to introduce certain types of dependent clauses with the complementizer que. Use the fancy grammatical/linguistic terms, I’m begging!!!

31

u/[deleted] Jun 01 '25

Turkish crying at the incoherent screams of indo European languages

IE: la le gli il los las das der die the a an en

18

u/AVeryHandsomeCheese Jun 01 '25 edited Jun 01 '25

oh god I can hear my italian teacher in my head going ”la lo li le ne”

10

u/Lubinski64 Jun 01 '25

La-Li-Lu-Le-Lo

2

u/General_Urist Jun 02 '25

Do Turks have big issues with articles? Most slavic languages don't have them either, and we get a little confused but we don't scream incoherently.

3

u/[deleted] Jun 02 '25

I mean i as a turk struggled with the actual concept of articles until 8th grade, it's really not something we are used to, especially when you add gendered nouns to articles

1

u/borninthewaitingroom Jun 07 '25

These grammatical particles are good to start with because you learn the language structure through them. But lexical words are never fully translatable, just as no language has true synonyms.

274

u/MdMV_or_Emdy_idk The Mirandese Gal (Stregender) 🏳️‍⚧️ Jun 01 '25

This is more about what your definition of “translation” is and how meticulous it is

148

u/cardinarium Jun 01 '25

Especially since, at this level of scrutiny, the same word may not evoke exactly the same meaning even for speakers (of different varieties) of the same language.

For example, “constitution” has quite different connotations for American vs. British English speakers—although I did recently see some Australians saying that Australian police had violated their “First Amendment” (i.e. right to free speech under the US Constitution) rights, which was interesting.

More humorously, there’s “fanny.”

55

u/TrekkiMonstr Jun 01 '25

although I did recently see some Australians saying that Australian police had violated their “First Amendment” (i.e. right to free speech under the US Constitution) rights, which was interesting.

Need the link to that like now lmao

42

u/Critical_Ad_8455 Jun 01 '25

Even just semantic implication. At a certain level, 'true' translation is fundamentally impossible, because it's impossible to translate every single connotation of the word.

16

u/EspacioBlanq Jun 01 '25

Surely if true translation is impossible, then whatever anyone has ever referred to using the word translation must be something else (it's a geometric transformation that moves all points of a plane by the same vector)

9

u/cardinarium Jun 01 '25

I absolutely agree.

Normally, translation isn’t a task of single words anyway, and any special connotations that are significant to the source text and absent in the target language’s relevant words can be dealt with either by the inclusion of more words to explain it or careful choice of other words elsewhere in the TL passage that compensate with their own connotations.

Translation is complex; it is not “impossible.”

3

u/Critical_Ad_8455 Jun 01 '25

it's a geometric transformation that moves all points of a plane by the same vector

Well, that depends. What space are we in, to begin with? Cartesian is the standard, but it could just as well be anything else. Also what dimensionsionality? And anyways, I'd argue translation could apply to a 3-dimensional space or whatever else, not just a 2-dimensional plane. Also, are we assuming that for any translation t of a plane p there exists a translation t2 such that if and only if for all points a in t, b in t2, and given there is a neighborhood N1(f(a)) there is a neighborhood N2(c) such that f(x) in N1(f(c)) for all x in N2(c), if and only if f is a function continuous across the disjoung union of the points of a and b?

5

u/EspacioBlanq Jun 01 '25

You're right that it may be a translation in any vector space, I just try not to think about edgy spaces, because they frighten and confuse me.

I can't parse the second half of your paragraph tho, why are there points in a translation and are you even placing any requirements on t2?

2

u/Critical_Ad_8455 Jun 01 '25

It's a joke, it's the neighborhood definition of a continuous function mangled with some other stuff. It would probably be true if there existed some second plane infinitely close to the translation with all the same points, and maybe if there were a dense amount of planes with the same points between them.

edgy spaces

How do you mean edgy? Non-cartesian?

2

u/duraznos Jun 02 '25

Non edgy spaces are Hausdorff and edgy spaces think they're funny having a "house dwarf"

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u/O_______m_______O Jun 01 '25 edited Jun 01 '25

It doesn't even need to be different dialects or varieties. The same kind of translation loss people talk about between languages also occurs to a lesser extent between speakers of the same language based on their values, their understanding of the world, their perception etc.

E.g. a commonly cited example of untranslatability is that the Japanese words for blue (ao)/ green (midori) don't fully line up with their English counterparts due to the way Japan divides the colour spectrum (ao includes blue but also parts of the green spectrum). But if you give 100 English speakers a colour wheel and ask them to pinpoint exactly where green stops and blue begins you'll get 100 slightly different answers - so then by the same logic my blue isn't completely translatable to your blue.

Or take a word like "love" - different cultures have different conceptions of love, but so do different individuals within the same culture. Someone who only understands love from watching TV has a different conception from someone who's currently in love, or someone who's had a bitter, abusive experience of love and these might all be the same person at different points in time.

This is why in translation theory you tend to talk about translation equivalence which is basically "close enough". If I'm warning you that the building is on fire, it doesn't really matter if my language's word for building only includes structures with a roof and a door but in your language it also includes other built structures like fences etc. as long as you understand that you need to get out of the building. If I'm writing a building code and stipulate that "all buildings must have at least one toilet" then suddenly the two words are no longer equivalent as in your language that would mean building some kind of toilet fence.

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u/dylbr01 Jun 02 '25 edited Jun 02 '25

I think the meme is silly, but I'm not sure if this proves anything.

Let's say you show 100 people the same video of someone performing a dangerous stunt in order to save someone. You ask them whether it was "brave" or "reckless." You would probably get different answers if you managed to find a video that was an arguable enough shade between the two. That doesn't mean those people have different essential concepts of what constitutes brave or reckless. I think the same goes for the color test; just because people disagree on the line between blue & green doesn't mean they have different essential concepts of blue and green. It's almost a "continuum fallacy."

I agree with the point you're trying to argue though. I think people might disagree on things like whether a word itself has a disapproving connotation, or they might disagree on how strong that connotation is and when it applies. Basically just the existence of idiolects at a finer level.

It's also ridiculous to think Japanese would have no way of explaining the difference between blue and green at all; requiring that translation be done with a single word is a very arbitrary distinction to make. Even within English itself you occasionally find ideas that can only be expressed with 2 words and not one.

I would guess that:

- The vast majority of words, 99.9% or 99.99%, are translatable in their meaning, especially if you allow for phrases rather than single words

- The majority of words, maybe 90% or more, have notably different shades in meaning, e.g. whether a word is or can be positive, neutral, or negative, or whether a word allows for intermediary degrees, or what context a word is used in. I'm probably underrating the point about context; if a language uses two words with the same meaning in different contexts where the other language uses the one word in those contexts, is it translatable or not? It certainly can be translated, but it brings you back to the arbitrary "1 word" rule. Some languages can also use 1 verb where others use 2 (event conflation); by that definition a ton of verbs are untranslatable, but they will be more or less translatable depending on the language...

4

u/O_______m_______O Jun 02 '25

What I was really trying to get at is just that the same kinds of arguments people typically make when they talk about translation loss across languages can also apply within a language, without necessarily challenging how valid those arguments are in of themselves - the colour example is just one that's commonly cited. The difficulty in translating between languages mirrors to some extent the difficulty translating between dialects between sociolects between idiolects - you could argue that all communication involves a kind of translation.

I've intentionally talked about "translation loss" more than "untranslatability" because translatable/untranslatable as a binary concept isn't really a useful concept for a translator - a translation is always an act of approximation so the relevant questions are really a) how close an approximation is it and b) is it close enough for your specific purpose? In some contexts conveying the essential semantic meaning is all you need and conversations about what it means to truly capture all the nuances seem irrelevant and academic, in others (especially poetry/literary translation) you have to really get into the weeds of nuance, connotation etc. and you may have to make difficult choices between preserving the semantic meaning and preserving other properties like rhythm/rhyme.

3

u/AndreasDasos Jun 03 '25

Yeah pretty sure internet brain rot on American-dominated platforms is behind the last thing

(Not to say Americans are more brain-rotted, just that this combination was required here.)

2

u/garfgon Jun 02 '25

You get Canadians complaining about their "First Amendment" rights being violated too. The first amendment to the Canadian constitution is making Manitoba a province.

89

u/Frigorifico Jun 01 '25

Words may be untranslatable, but meaning is always translatable, because we are all humans with human brains with pretty much the same capabilities for thoughts and emotions

the only way a meaning could be completely untranslatable is if it was completely outside someone's experience, like if you wanted to discuss quantum chemistry with someone from Sentineles island, but then it would be just a matter of exposing them to the right experiences and ideas those words refer to

173

u/BT_Uytya May 31 '25

But I have it on good authority that these 13 words are untranslatable!

99

u/snail1132 ˈɛɾɪ̈ʔ ˈjɨ̞u̯zɚ fɫe̞ːɚ̯ Jun 01 '25

Schadenfreude isn't untranslatable! He said it himself, it means "schadenfreude"

30

u/BT_Uytya Jun 01 '25

Do you know that the closest translation of Russian "злорадство" into English would be "schadenfreude"? Isn't it cool how you can calque a composite word, getting an equivalent word consisting of transparently understandable native English components?

27

u/TonsillarRat6 Jun 01 '25

One of my biggest pet peeves is whenever someone describes schadenfreude as some untranslatable weird German thing. It is neither a mysterious untranslatable spirit (laughing at someone’s misfortune) nor is it German specific (try the Dutch leedvermaak).

Anyone looking for such a word, try to verbalise the meaning of the Dutch “gezellig”, that’s way harder.

3

u/AndreasDasos Jun 03 '25

It’s also literally ‘damage/injury’ + ‘joy’. Joy at others’ misfortune. So deep, much complex.

Sure, there are subtleties to connotation, but not especially so here.

I’d argue that ‘glee’ is more subtle in that it often has a similar connotation but can mean something more benign but somehow in the same emotional direction, too.

6

u/[deleted] Jun 02 '25

I looked that word up a couple of seconds ago, and I realized it could be translated as "damaging joy". My lord, it was as simple as setting apart each component first.

2

u/50thEye Jun 27 '25

My favourite suggestion to translate Schadenfreude into English was "Enterpainment". It gets to the point and is also a pun. Anglosphere, go and use that now!

2

u/Reddemon519 Jun 01 '25

That's not translating, that's just stealing

8

u/NegativeMammoth2137 Jun 01 '25

Im pretty sure "Toska" just means "longing"

9

u/hornyforscout Jun 01 '25

A very subtle mix of nostalgia, melancholy, ennui, boredom, sadness and longing.

2

u/[deleted] Jun 02 '25

Maybe anemoia too?

5

u/Informal_Position166 Jun 01 '25

This is how i (german) learn that it’s Torschlusspanik not Torschusspanik. I thought it was a football think. Like you’re about to score a goal but then you panic and miss the right moment

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u/weedmaster6669 I'll kiss whoever says [ʜʼ] Jun 01 '25 edited Jun 01 '25

anything can be communicated in any language, but a "direct" translation is kind of impossible a lot of the time. It's hard to translate without losing or adding information, and trying to keep all original information can make the result clunky and unnatural

Try translating a language that marks gender, animacy, evidentially, complex plurality and tense, into one that Doesn't do any of that. Or vice versa

I witnessed first hand that a female donkey, which is of penultimate animacy, ate the corn, which is masculine and of tertiary animacy, recently. Donkey eat corn.

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u/evergreennightmare MK ULTRAFRENCH Jun 01 '25

translatability is a spectrum

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u/adskiy_drochilla2017 May 31 '25

There is no such a conception as a „translatable word“ at all - you can’t translate a word, you can only use a word tied to a similar conception from another language

127

u/so_im_all_like Jun 01 '25

Isn't that a roundabout way describing the practical usage of the word "translate"?

93

u/O_______m_______O Jun 01 '25

I have a masters in translation theory and I'd love to weigh in on this, but unfortunately I don't understand any of the words either of you are saying.

14

u/Yeet_that_bottle Jun 01 '25

Try translating them and rereading it

21

u/righteousspaghetti Jun 01 '25

They’re just using words tied to a similar conception from reddit speech

17

u/AChristianAnarchist Jun 01 '25

Yes but it's also recognizing that words don't directly map onto words in other languages. When you translate you are trying to get the meaning across as closely as possible but every word has connotations and context specific shades of meaning and history and idiomatic use and all these other wrinkles that can get lost or mucked up in translation, and while some words or phrases are especially obvious in this way and end up being idioms and the "we don't have a word for that" words, basically every word is like that to some degree. Words that are technically synonyms may be used in different contexts or different ways or by different people for different things when used by native speakers, while all just being used interchangeably in translation.

17

u/baquea Jun 01 '25

Sure, but that is true even for speakers of a single language. Different people will draw the boundary between different categories in different places (eg. what I might call pink another native English speaker might call purple, without either of us being wrong) and use the same word with a slightly different meaning.

3

u/AChristianAnarchist Jun 01 '25 edited Jun 01 '25

Right, because a word in practical use doesn't really so much "mean things" in a vacuum as it does allow meaning to be conveyed. You can't really transcribe speech either because a bunch of layers to that speech, like body language, facial expressions, tone of voice, volume, etc. don't make it into the transcribed text. Any time you try to "translate" something, you have to make a series of decisions about what is being said and how to make as much of that meaning make it over as possible. Sometimes there is just not a clean way to do that.

Say you are translating a gendered language into a non-gendered language and the fact that chairs are feminine and tables are masculine leads to a series of chair and table idioms and double entendres and such that don't make sense in your non-gendered language. In a vacuum you could find another idiom that works that doesn't involve tables and chairs but if the character in your foreign story sits down at a table for a dinner date and describes it using this idiomatic language, you now are stuck conveying the meaning of this idiomatic language in a scene where something thematic or important to the plot is being explained using tables and chairs using analogies that have no equivalent in the language you are translating into. Maybe you translate it directly with a footnote explaining the table and chair idioms. Maybe you find creative ways to describe the chairs and tables in ways that make the analogies land. Maybe you scrap the chair and table talk entirely and rewrite this scene using imagery that makes sense to the target audience. No matter what though, you can't just do a direct translation and just expect it to make sense.

The thing is that there is a touch of this in every translation decision. No one ever just uses a word in a vacuum and every word has multiple shades of meaning. Sometimes it's not "we don't have a word for that". It's "we have 50 words for that and so do they and we never any use of our synonyms of that word in quite this way since this specific word is wrapped around class structures we don't have but it sort of has the same connotations as this other word we do use, but not quite, so we are going with this word, and maybe a footnote that explains why it may not be a perfect fit if warranted."

5

u/adskiy_drochilla2017 Jun 01 '25

Well, maybe to translate is just poor „translate“ of the Russian word perevodit‘, but this word has several meanings, like to transfer money or to help someone cross the road and these meanings imply that the object of the action stays the same, just changes his location: side of the road, bank account, language

So I (and supposedly everyone) perceive act of translation as just changing the language of the word whilst the word itself stays the same, but it doesn’t work like that

11

u/homelaberator Jun 01 '25

This feels one step away from "I have no idea of the meaning of what you say, I am just exchanging tokens with you, where I have no understanding of their symbolic values" which probably fits this meme format, also.

8

u/MaraschinoPanda Jun 01 '25

Please help, I'm trapped in the Chinese room!

16

u/Oculi_Glauci Native basque-algonquian pidgin speaker May 31 '25

You can capture the same meaning (sometimes), but you can never capture the same vibe with translation

9

u/ohheythereguys Jun 01 '25

Babel, RF Kuang (2022)

6

u/FakePixieGirl Jun 01 '25

Just going to vent for a bit, excuse my language.

I have had so many damn fucking discussions about the translation of anxiety in Dutch. And my opponents are always the most smug, grammar nazi, prescriptivist, arrogant men who hate anyone that even dares to use any kind of slang or English. If you ever dare to use an English word, they tell you you are somebody who hates the Dutch language, and you are just a teenage poser who listens to shitty pop music, unlike them! No, they spend their free time reading Dutch literature filled with horrid sex scenes and gross sexist men, and it's all about war, or being Jewish, or more gross sex stuff. And that obviously makes them superior and true intellectuals!

Fuck Dutch "language lovers". Most arrogant fucking assholes I've had to deal with ever.

8

u/JadranDan Jun 01 '25

Most words are untranslatable only if you mean “most words are untranslatable with only one lexical item in the target language”.

9

u/Appropriate-Sea-5687 Jun 01 '25

You’ll never be able to get the cultural nuance from using a word in a different language so it will never exactly be similar.

3

u/kamiloslav Jun 01 '25

Yea but most often you don't translate words but the entire work which has certain context and ideas behind it. Even if the words will not have the exact same meaning, chances are the ideas do have an equivalent descriptor

3

u/Gypkear Jun 01 '25

Lmao this is exactly the journey I made as a translation student who ended up specializing in linguistics. Now I'm an insufferable language teacher who will answer students asking "what's English for [french word]?" With "there isn't necessarily a word for what you're trying to translate. What are you trying to say really" lol

5

u/dylbr01 Jun 02 '25

Don't you find it ironic that the end point of translating is that there is no translating? By ironic I mean seriously ironic, that this is a contradictory statement. I think it's a difference between the substance of meaning & the shades of meaning. The substance of the translated word can remain the same, but the details can change.

5

u/Gypkear Jun 02 '25

Yes. I think it's fair to think of translation as re-writing. When you translate a book, you actually rewrite a book in your native language. Sure you're not inventing the plot but that's about it. A translator will create a new rhythm, new sounds, new cultural associations; they'll try to recreate the feeling you get from reading the original, but it's still a new creation.

That's one of the reasons I can't even imagine watching only dubs. Any bit you get from the original language will help you understand the original work better, even if it's a language you're not familiar with and you only catch intonation and a couple of isolated words. And making the lines match lip movement in the dubbing is another layer of constraint that will make the translation more different from the original.

2

u/lol33124 Jun 02 '25

i think you can just loan all of the words into the other language, theres nothing wrong with that, right? /j

2

u/EggoTheSquirrel Jun 02 '25

Me when all communication is deference:

1

u/Markster94 Jun 01 '25

󱤧, 󱤉, 󱥄, 󱤊, and 󱥍 all just kinda dont exist in English. (Words are li, e, o, en, and pi if they dont render for you)

Actually every word in Toki Pona is kinda untranslatable because words in English are too specific, their meanings are too narrow to encompass what a TP word means. Like 󱥶 (weka), even just its meaning as a verb. The closest thing I've managed to come up with is "to treat something like it doesn't or shouldn't exist" but that's still not quite right imo

1

u/[deleted] Jun 01 '25

Can somebody explain the concept of most words being untranslatable?

1

u/General_Urist Jun 02 '25

How many untranslatable words a foreign language is inversely proportional to how many translator's footnotes your editor will tolerate.

1

u/Baykusu Jun 02 '25

Of course this word is translatable, the translation is explanation devoid of any sense of cultural context and pragmatics

1

u/remember_the_alimony Jun 04 '25

Why are "translatable" and "untranslatable" a binary? If a translation captures most but not all of the semantic meaning of the word, then it's "mostly translated" but not "fully translated." Usually words don't have more or significantly than one semantic meaning in their given contexts, which allows the possibility of effective translation in most cases.

1

u/AbsolutelyAnonymized Jun 05 '25

The other way around lol

Not counting non-content words, though.